Saturday, December 31, 2011
Friday, December 30, 2011
Thursday, December 29, 2011
Wednesday, December 28, 2011
Tuesday, December 27, 2011
Monday, December 26, 2011
Southern Power Distribution Company of A.P.limited
Southern Power Distribution Company of A.P.limited
Corporate Office , Kesavayanagunta,
Tiruchanur Road:: Tirupati
Corporate Office , Kesavayanagunta,
Tiruchanur Road:: Tirupati
The APSPDCL invites applications from eligible candidates for filling up of the following vacancies
- 1. Sub-Engineers (Electrical) : 43 Posts
- Pay Scale : Rs. 11545-485-13000-650-16250-800-20250-955-23115
- Age : Not below 18 years and not more than 34 years as on 30.11.2011 (Relaxable as per rules)
- 2. Junior Linemen : 1316 Posts
- Pay Scale : Rs. 8760-170-9270-250-10520-325-12145-400-14145
- Age : not below 18 years and not above 35 years as on 30.11.2011. (Relaxable as per rules)
For Further Detail, Application Form, Please Visit http://www.apspdcl.in/careers.html
Sunday, December 25, 2011
Saturday, December 24, 2011
Thursday, December 22, 2011
Tuesday, December 20, 2011
Monday, December 19, 2011
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012
APGENCO is the largest Power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3rd largest Power utility (8923.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the Country and one of the best in the World invites Online applications for the Recruitment of Trainee Assistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil).
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer Recruitment 2012
Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)
Vacancies: 411 Posts
Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720
Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012
Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Assistant Engineers:
Age Limit: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.12.2011. Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC/ST/BC candidates and 10 years in respect of physically challenged candidates.
Educational Qualifications:
Electrical | B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent |
Mechanical | B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Mechanical Engineering or equivalent |
Electronics | B.E/B.Tech./A.M.I.E., in Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Controls Engineering/ Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics & Control Engineering/ Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics Instrumentation & Power/ Power electronics or equivalent |
Civil | B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Civil Engineering or equivalent |
Application Fee: OC Candidates – Rs.500/- & for SC/ ST/ BC/ PWD – Rs.150/- The applicant should pay the prescribed Registration Fee in any one of the A.P. Online Centers or A.P. Online Portal and obtain the receipt.
How to apply: The candidate has to login to the website http://www.apgenco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or directly visit http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in to view detailed notification, user guide and to submit application form. Online application is accessible from 20.12.2011 to 03.01.2012.
Click here for APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer detailed Notification
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012
Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)
Vacancies: 411 Posts
Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720
APGENCO Trainee AE Selection Procedure: Written Test
Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012
The written examination will be held at Hyderabad & Secunderabad only.
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer Written exam Pattern: Written test will be conducted in the following manner.
Section A: Questions on core academic curriculum of respective discipline. The syllabus for the examination is given below.
Section B: Questions on analytical aptitude.
Note: The minimum qualifying/ cut off marks in the APGENCO AE written test shall be for OCs – 40%, BCs – 35%, SCs, STs and physically challenged – 30%.
Saturday, December 17, 2011
Friday, December 16, 2011
APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Written Test Pattern & Syllabus 2011
i) APSRTC Junior Assistant Finance Written Test is scheduled to be held on 18.12.2011. APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Admit Cards are available in APSRTC official website http://apsrtc.cgg.gov.in/.
ii) Eligible candidates will be called for written examination which is of fully objective type (multiple choice).
There will be 200 questions covering different topics.
Duration of Written Examination – 3.00 hours
iii) Each right answer will be awarded one mark. There is no negative marking.
iv) The number of questions and the subjects covered are furnished hereunder.
APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Written Test Pattern 2011
Sl. No. | Subject | No. of Questions | Marks |
1 | Accounting & Finance | 100 | 100 |
2 | Numerical Aptitude | 25 | 25 |
3 | General English | 25 | 25 |
4 | General Knowledge | 25 | 25 |
5 | General Intelligence& Clerical Aptitude | 25 | 25 |
Click here for APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Syllabus 2011
APGENCO JPA written test Pattern & Syllabus - Selection Process
APGENCO invited online applications for filling up of 1755 Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) posts by Direct Recruitment as per the notification dated 19.10.2011. APGENCO Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) 2011 written test is scheduled to be held on 18.12.2011 (Sunday).
APGENCO Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) 2011 Selection Procedure:
APGENCO JPA Selection Procedure comprising of Total 100 Marks.
A. Criteria for preliminary evaluation: – 50 Marks
(i) 30 Marks will be allocated against marks obtained in the qualifying examination of ITI [Marks Secured in ITI X 30/Total Marks in ITI].
(ii) Weightage up to 10 Marks will be given for having passed the qualifying examination of ITI before the date of notification @ 2 Marks for each completed year of passing. Fraction of months will be ignored.
(iii) Service Weightage to contract labour worked in Power Generating Stations of APGENCO:
• Service for more than 6 months… 10 Marks
• Service for less than 6 months … 5 Marks
APGENCO Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) 2011 Written Test Paper Pattern:
B. APGENCO JPA Written Test – 25 Marks: Based on the marks secured as per the criteria mentioned in “A” above, a combined merit list of all trades shall be drawn and the candidates in the ratio of 1:20 will be called for “APGENCO JPA Written Test” duly following the rule of reservation. Any candidate carrying equal marks under 1:20 ratio shall also be called for the said written test. The APGENCO JPA 2011 exam paper comprising of 25 marks consisting of 50 multiple choice questions and each question carrying “half” mark on Power Plant Related Topics of Thermal and Hydel Generating Stations with common paper in Telugu and English.
APGENCO Junior Plant Assistant JPA 2011 Written Test Paper Syllabus
C. APGENCO JPA 2011 Trade Test – 25 Marks: Based on the marks secured as per the criteria mentioned in “A” & “B” above, a combined merit list of all trades shall be drawn and the candidates in the ratio of 1:3 will be called for “Trade Test relating to respective Trades” duly following the Rule of Reservation.
The date and place of “Trade Test” will be communicated “online” through APGENCO website http://www.apgenco.gov.in/ and http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in separately.
D. There will be no interview.
Thursday, December 15, 2011
Monday, December 12, 2011
Saturday, December 10, 2011
APPSC JUNIOR LECTURERS EXAM COMMERCE SOLVED PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 03-12-2011)
1.World Trade Organisation came into existence on
Ans : 1-1-1995
2. The form of departmentation often used in the sales function is
Ans: By Territory
3. which of the following statements reflects the relation between line and staff ?
Ans : Line is operational, staff is advisory
4. The tendency to disperse decision making authority in an organised structure is called
Ans: Decentralisation
5. A firm producing that output at which the marginal cost curve intersects with the marginal revenue curve from down, is known as
Ans: Equilibrium firm
6.What is the main purpose of Internal communication ?
Ans: Information
7. IDPL unit prepares key formulations of drugs. Hundreds of drug firms are established which take key formulations from IDPL. The IDPL comes under
Ans: Genetic Industry
8. Integration and synchronisation of group efforts in the organisation to achieve organisational goals is called
Ans: Co-ordination
9. which one is the main purpose of Management Information System?
Ans: Assess and distribute information
10. Organisational technique of control cane be differentiated into
Ans: Feedback and feed forward
11. How are committees useful as a technique of co-ordination ?
Ans: All of these
12. One of the following was not an objective of Industrial Policy 1991
Ans: To attain self reliance through import substitution
13. Vertical integration is resorted in case
Ans: Financial optima is smaller than managerial optima
14. The job of controlling is carried out by
Ans: All managerial staff
15. Curiosity, manipulation, power, security and status are examples of
Ans: Secondary motives
16. One of the factors below does not determine the size of the unit:
Ans: Level of satisfaction among workers
17. One of the following is not a force which determines the optimum size of the unit :
Ans: Profitability forces
18. The inner state activating and channelling behaviour towards goals is called
Ans: Motive
19. Expectancy theory of motivation was brought out by
Ans: Vroom
20. McClellans's Needs theory explains needs for _____________, affiliation and power.
Ans: Achievement
21. Herzberg's theory consists of __________ and motivational factors.
Ans: Hygiene
22. Theories of leadership include, Trait, Behavioural and
Ans : Situational
23. Likert's four systems of leadership re Exploitative and benevolent Authoritative, Consultative, and
Ans Democratic
24. Situational leadership theory focuses on
Ans: Followers
25. "Ubiquities" and 'Antiquities' are the terms used in the location theory propounded by
Ans: Alfred Weber
26. The concept of "Growth Centres" has been recommended by the
Ans: Sivaraman Committee
27. In group meetings, there will be two phases of inertia, then ______ periods followed by a flurry of activities.
Ans: Transition
28. Coordination an execution of task will be better in
Ans: Small group
29. Most common group decision making technique used is
Ans: Brainstorming
30. The formula for measuring net labour turnover is
Ans: NLT = Total replacements / Average workforce * 100
31. Industrial Disputes Act envisages compulsory adjudication of industrial disputes when
Ans: Government decides by way of reference
32. Among the several methods of settlement of disputes, the best one is
Ans: Collective bargaining
33. The workers participation rate indicates the percentage of
Ans: Total main workers plus marginal workers in the total population
34. India adopted the code of 'discipline' in the year
Ans: 1958
35. The Systems approach to industrial relations was given by
Ans: Dunlop
36. Outsourcing of business operations by MNCs has led to
Ans: Loss in the bargaining strength of labour
37. NEGP refers to
Ans: National Employment Guarantee Programme
38.Who publishes the 'Rural Labour Enquiry Reports' ?
Ans: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour
39. One of the statements given below is true. Pick it up.
Ans: Workers participation in management is possible in unorganized labour
40. EAS refers to
Ans: Employment Assurance Scheme
41. Government of India implemented two schemes to remove the unemployment of youth. They are
Ans : TRYSEM and PMRY
42. One of the following does not come under unorganized labour:
Ans: Handicraft workers
43. Industrial relations is used to describe the nature of relationship between
Ans: Government and industry { Actual answer is Employers, Employees, Government }
44. Labour - Management relations is the Constitutional guarantee in one of the following countries. Which one is it ?
Ans: Japan
45. Collective bargaining is
Ans: A peace treaty between two parties in continual conflicts
46. The bargaining between all the trade unions of workers in the same inustry through their federal organisations and the employers federation is
Ans : Multiple employer bargaining
47. Demand for labour is dependent on one of the following :
Ans: Demand for products made by labour
48. The three-man tripartite committee set up in 1954 is
Ans: Steering Committee on Wages
49. NCL refers to
Ans: National Commission on Labour { Refer Question number 81}
50. ILC refers to
Ans: Indian Labour Conference
51. The main objective of labour legislation is to
Ans : All of these
52. Social security legislation acts include
Ans: Employees State Insurance Act, Employees Provident Fund Act, Payment of Gratuity Act
53. One of the statements given below is incorrect. Pick it up.
Ans: ESI Act is not applicable to private sector employees
54. The other name for unfair labour practice is
Ans: Unfair Labour Victimisation
55. Which of the following is not a measure of efficiency ?
Ans: Capital Employed
56. A group of firms, carrying on similar types of activity is called
Ans: Industry
57. Which of the following is an example for industry's goods ?
Ans: Rice
58. SAIL was established in 1973 as a
Ans: Multi Unit Enterprise
59. A firm, in which existing condition of technique and organising ability, has the lowest average cost of production per unit is called
Ans: Optimum sized firm
60. A small change in sales results in disproportionate change in EBIT, other things being equal, is called
Ans: Operating leverage
61. Clientele effect is relatively more associated with
Ans: Dividend decision
62. Which one of the following is not a motive for holding cash ?
Ans : Profit motive
63. _______ model is an approach that provides for cost-efficient cash balances.
Ans: Baumol model
64. 'Factoring' as a financial service is associated with
Ans: Account Receivable
65. In a JIT environment, the flow of goods is controlled by
Ans: Pull approach
66. A firm in which lower level of current assets is supporting a given level of output is pursuing
Ans: Aggressive working capital policy
67. A policy that involves matching of assets and liability maturity is called
Ans: Hedging policy
68. The ratio that measures the ability of the firm to make committed payments is called
Ans: Debt service coverage ratio
69. Break-even point and margin of safety can be determined by using
Ans: P/V ratio
70. HMT Ltd. is an example of a/an
Ans: Industry
71. One of the following is not a measure of size. Identify.
Ans: Profit
72. Which of the following has government ownership, control and participation in business decisions as an essential feature?
Ans: Public sector organization
73.The concept of joint sector was introduced by Govt. of India on the recommendations of
Ans : Dutt Committee
74. Indian Railways is an example for
Ans: Departmental Undertaking
75. A company in which not less than 51 percent of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments is a
Ans: Government Company
76. The process of withdrawing one's stake either in full or part by the government is called
Ans: Disinvestment
77. Changes in technology illustrate
Ans: Cyclical changes or Seasonal changes
78. Internal dis-economies of scale happen
Ans: When an increase in the scale of production leads to a higher cost per unit
79. The disguised unemployment refers to
Ans: more persons employed for a job which a few can accomplish
80. The credit for forming the first industrial union in 1918 goes to
Ans: B.P. Wadia
81. Prime benefit accruing to the employees are usually
Ans: Fringe benefits
82. The report of the first National Commission on Labour was submitted in
Ans: 1969
83. During the recent Period nearly 50 percent of GDP is being contributed by
Ans: Services factor
84.The pace of employment growth in the manufacturing sector during the post-reform period has
Ans: increased from 2.06% to 3.0%
85. There is a consistent decline in the mode of employment in
Ans: Regular employment
86. The ratio that indicates what proportion of Earning Per Share has been used for paying dividend is called
Ans: Payout ratio
87. Return of Investment (ROI) is a
Ans: Performance criterion
88. The Liquidity Ratio is satisfactory when it is
Ans: 1 : 1
89. 'Core Working Capital' is more or less of a
Ans: Fixed nature
90. Yield on share is equal to
Ans: DPS/Market price of share * 100
91. The earning power of the company depends upon
Ans: Net profit to capital turnover ratio
92. Cash flow in capital budgeting decision means
Ans: PAT + Depreciation
93. One of the following is not a source of funds. Which is that?
Ans. Decrease in deferred payment liabilities
94. In capital budgeting decisions, the time value of money is considered in case of
Ans: NPV
95. Cost of capital serves as __________ rate for capital investment.
Ans: Cut-off
96. According to traditional approach the cost of capital is affected by
Ans: Debt equity mix
97. Substitution of home-made leverage into corporate leverage is highlighted in capital structure theory of
Ans: Modigliani and Miller
98. Trading on equity implies a ______ debt equity ratio.
Ans: High
99. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by
Ans: William Sharpe
100. Depreciation is included in costs in case of
Ans: Average rate of return
101. Operating profit meas
Ans: Profit before interest and tax
102. Bird-in-hand theory of dividend was advocated by
Ans: Gorden and Lintner
103. The financial transaction wherein an investor purchases a security only for the dividend and sells it after receiving the same is called
Ans: Dividend stripping
104. Projects which compete with each other in capital investment decisions are called
Ans: Mutually exclusive projects
105. Which one of the following is not a capital budgeting decision ?
Ans: Investment in current assets
106. The cost of depreciation generation funds is equal to
Ans: Cost of retained earnings
107. The interest rate that equates the present value of the expected future cash flows to the initial cost outlay is
Ans: IRR
Ans : 1-1-1995
2. The form of departmentation often used in the sales function is
Ans: By Territory
3. which of the following statements reflects the relation between line and staff ?
Ans : Line is operational, staff is advisory
4. The tendency to disperse decision making authority in an organised structure is called
Ans: Decentralisation
5. A firm producing that output at which the marginal cost curve intersects with the marginal revenue curve from down, is known as
Ans: Equilibrium firm
6.What is the main purpose of Internal communication ?
Ans: Information
7. IDPL unit prepares key formulations of drugs. Hundreds of drug firms are established which take key formulations from IDPL. The IDPL comes under
Ans: Genetic Industry
8. Integration and synchronisation of group efforts in the organisation to achieve organisational goals is called
Ans: Co-ordination
9. which one is the main purpose of Management Information System?
Ans: Assess and distribute information
10. Organisational technique of control cane be differentiated into
Ans: Feedback and feed forward
11. How are committees useful as a technique of co-ordination ?
Ans: All of these
12. One of the following was not an objective of Industrial Policy 1991
Ans: To attain self reliance through import substitution
13. Vertical integration is resorted in case
Ans: Financial optima is smaller than managerial optima
14. The job of controlling is carried out by
Ans: All managerial staff
15. Curiosity, manipulation, power, security and status are examples of
Ans: Secondary motives
16. One of the factors below does not determine the size of the unit:
Ans: Level of satisfaction among workers
17. One of the following is not a force which determines the optimum size of the unit :
Ans: Profitability forces
18. The inner state activating and channelling behaviour towards goals is called
Ans: Motive
19. Expectancy theory of motivation was brought out by
Ans: Vroom
20. McClellans's Needs theory explains needs for _____________, affiliation and power.
Ans: Achievement
21. Herzberg's theory consists of __________ and motivational factors.
Ans: Hygiene
22. Theories of leadership include, Trait, Behavioural and
Ans : Situational
23. Likert's four systems of leadership re Exploitative and benevolent Authoritative, Consultative, and
Ans Democratic
24. Situational leadership theory focuses on
Ans: Followers
25. "Ubiquities" and 'Antiquities' are the terms used in the location theory propounded by
Ans: Alfred Weber
26. The concept of "Growth Centres" has been recommended by the
Ans: Sivaraman Committee
27. In group meetings, there will be two phases of inertia, then ______ periods followed by a flurry of activities.
Ans: Transition
28. Coordination an execution of task will be better in
Ans: Small group
29. Most common group decision making technique used is
Ans: Brainstorming
30. The formula for measuring net labour turnover is
Ans: NLT = Total replacements / Average workforce * 100
31. Industrial Disputes Act envisages compulsory adjudication of industrial disputes when
Ans: Government decides by way of reference
32. Among the several methods of settlement of disputes, the best one is
Ans: Collective bargaining
33. The workers participation rate indicates the percentage of
Ans: Total main workers plus marginal workers in the total population
34. India adopted the code of 'discipline' in the year
Ans: 1958
35. The Systems approach to industrial relations was given by
Ans: Dunlop
36. Outsourcing of business operations by MNCs has led to
Ans: Loss in the bargaining strength of labour
37. NEGP refers to
Ans: National Employment Guarantee Programme
38.Who publishes the 'Rural Labour Enquiry Reports' ?
Ans: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour
39. One of the statements given below is true. Pick it up.
Ans: Workers participation in management is possible in unorganized labour
40. EAS refers to
Ans: Employment Assurance Scheme
41. Government of India implemented two schemes to remove the unemployment of youth. They are
Ans : TRYSEM and PMRY
42. One of the following does not come under unorganized labour:
Ans: Handicraft workers
43. Industrial relations is used to describe the nature of relationship between
Ans: Government and industry { Actual answer is Employers, Employees, Government }
44. Labour - Management relations is the Constitutional guarantee in one of the following countries. Which one is it ?
Ans: Japan
45. Collective bargaining is
Ans: A peace treaty between two parties in continual conflicts
46. The bargaining between all the trade unions of workers in the same inustry through their federal organisations and the employers federation is
Ans : Multiple employer bargaining
47. Demand for labour is dependent on one of the following :
Ans: Demand for products made by labour
48. The three-man tripartite committee set up in 1954 is
Ans: Steering Committee on Wages
49. NCL refers to
Ans: National Commission on Labour { Refer Question number 81}
50. ILC refers to
Ans: Indian Labour Conference
51. The main objective of labour legislation is to
Ans : All of these
52. Social security legislation acts include
Ans: Employees State Insurance Act, Employees Provident Fund Act, Payment of Gratuity Act
53. One of the statements given below is incorrect. Pick it up.
Ans: ESI Act is not applicable to private sector employees
54. The other name for unfair labour practice is
Ans: Unfair Labour Victimisation
55. Which of the following is not a measure of efficiency ?
Ans: Capital Employed
56. A group of firms, carrying on similar types of activity is called
Ans: Industry
57. Which of the following is an example for industry's goods ?
Ans: Rice
58. SAIL was established in 1973 as a
Ans: Multi Unit Enterprise
59. A firm, in which existing condition of technique and organising ability, has the lowest average cost of production per unit is called
Ans: Optimum sized firm
60. A small change in sales results in disproportionate change in EBIT, other things being equal, is called
Ans: Operating leverage
61. Clientele effect is relatively more associated with
Ans: Dividend decision
62. Which one of the following is not a motive for holding cash ?
Ans : Profit motive
63. _______ model is an approach that provides for cost-efficient cash balances.
Ans: Baumol model
64. 'Factoring' as a financial service is associated with
Ans: Account Receivable
65. In a JIT environment, the flow of goods is controlled by
Ans: Pull approach
66. A firm in which lower level of current assets is supporting a given level of output is pursuing
Ans: Aggressive working capital policy
67. A policy that involves matching of assets and liability maturity is called
Ans: Hedging policy
68. The ratio that measures the ability of the firm to make committed payments is called
Ans: Debt service coverage ratio
69. Break-even point and margin of safety can be determined by using
Ans: P/V ratio
70. HMT Ltd. is an example of a/an
Ans: Industry
71. One of the following is not a measure of size. Identify.
Ans: Profit
72. Which of the following has government ownership, control and participation in business decisions as an essential feature?
Ans: Public sector organization
73.The concept of joint sector was introduced by Govt. of India on the recommendations of
Ans : Dutt Committee
74. Indian Railways is an example for
Ans: Departmental Undertaking
75. A company in which not less than 51 percent of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments is a
Ans: Government Company
76. The process of withdrawing one's stake either in full or part by the government is called
Ans: Disinvestment
77. Changes in technology illustrate
Ans: Cyclical changes or Seasonal changes
78. Internal dis-economies of scale happen
Ans: When an increase in the scale of production leads to a higher cost per unit
79. The disguised unemployment refers to
Ans: more persons employed for a job which a few can accomplish
80. The credit for forming the first industrial union in 1918 goes to
Ans: B.P. Wadia
81. Prime benefit accruing to the employees are usually
Ans: Fringe benefits
82. The report of the first National Commission on Labour was submitted in
Ans: 1969
83. During the recent Period nearly 50 percent of GDP is being contributed by
Ans: Services factor
84.The pace of employment growth in the manufacturing sector during the post-reform period has
Ans: increased from 2.06% to 3.0%
85. There is a consistent decline in the mode of employment in
Ans: Regular employment
86. The ratio that indicates what proportion of Earning Per Share has been used for paying dividend is called
Ans: Payout ratio
87. Return of Investment (ROI) is a
Ans: Performance criterion
88. The Liquidity Ratio is satisfactory when it is
Ans: 1 : 1
89. 'Core Working Capital' is more or less of a
Ans: Fixed nature
90. Yield on share is equal to
Ans: DPS/Market price of share * 100
91. The earning power of the company depends upon
Ans: Net profit to capital turnover ratio
92. Cash flow in capital budgeting decision means
Ans: PAT + Depreciation
93. One of the following is not a source of funds. Which is that?
Ans. Decrease in deferred payment liabilities
94. In capital budgeting decisions, the time value of money is considered in case of
Ans: NPV
95. Cost of capital serves as __________ rate for capital investment.
Ans: Cut-off
96. According to traditional approach the cost of capital is affected by
Ans: Debt equity mix
97. Substitution of home-made leverage into corporate leverage is highlighted in capital structure theory of
Ans: Modigliani and Miller
98. Trading on equity implies a ______ debt equity ratio.
Ans: High
99. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by
Ans: William Sharpe
100. Depreciation is included in costs in case of
Ans: Average rate of return
101. Operating profit meas
Ans: Profit before interest and tax
102. Bird-in-hand theory of dividend was advocated by
Ans: Gorden and Lintner
103. The financial transaction wherein an investor purchases a security only for the dividend and sells it after receiving the same is called
Ans: Dividend stripping
104. Projects which compete with each other in capital investment decisions are called
Ans: Mutually exclusive projects
105. Which one of the following is not a capital budgeting decision ?
Ans: Investment in current assets
106. The cost of depreciation generation funds is equal to
Ans: Cost of retained earnings
107. The interest rate that equates the present value of the expected future cash flows to the initial cost outlay is
Ans: IRR
Wednesday, December 7, 2011
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