Thursday, June 30, 2011
Wednesday, June 29, 2011
Tuesday, June 28, 2011
Monday, June 27, 2011
Applications for the post ofAccounts Officer and Assistant Accounts Officer, TTD
Applications are invited from the eligible candidates for the following posts in TTD with the following qualifications. The applications should reach the Executive Officer, Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams, K.T. Road, Tirupati on or before 14-07-2011 with full Bio-data particulars such as proof of Age Educational Qualifications, Technical Qualifications, Marks Statements, Experience, Proof of Caste certificate etc., duly attested by the Gazetted Officer (Photostat copies to be enclosed) along with recent passport size Photograph,through prescribed application form available in this website.
The name of the post shall be superscribed in the Cover. Incomplete and late applications will not be entertained. In-service candidates should apply for the post through their employer.
PERSONS PROFESSING HINDU RELIGION SHOULD ONLY APPLY.
The Management reserves the right to cancel the notification / postpone the interview / selections according to administrative convenience and pending approval of Government.
Application Format
DETAILS OF THE POSTS
| S. NO. | NAME OF THE POST | QUALIFICATIONS | NO. OF POSTS | RESER-VATION CATE-GORY | SCALEOF PAY | AGE |
| 1 | ACCOUNTS OFFICER | 1) Must be a Chartered Accountant and 2) Must have 3(three) years of practical experience in Financial Accountancy in an Industrial Organisation or in a reputed Chartered Accountant firm. 3)Must not have completed 34 years of age subject to applicable relaxation from time to time. | 6 (SIX) | OC (W) 1 SC (W) 1 OC 2 BC-A(W) 1 S.C. 1 --------- Total : 6 -------- | Rs. 19050-45850 | 1. Must have completed 18 years of age and must have not completed 34 years of age as on 01-07-2011. 2. Upper age relaxable upto 5 years in respect of B.C., S.C. & S.T. Candidates. 3. Upper age relaxable 10 upto years in respect of physically handicapped categories | |
| 2 | ASSISTANT ACCOUNTS OFFICER | 1. Must be a Graduate in Commerce with minimum of C.A. Inter (or) Must be a Chartered Accountant (or) must be a Cost Accountant. 2.Must not have completed 34 years of age subject to applicable relaxation from time to time | 22 (TWENTY TWO) | OC(W) 4 SC(W) 2 OC 8 BC-A(W) 1 VH 1 SC 2 ST(W) 1 BC-B(W) 1 BC-D(W) 1 BC-A 1 ------- Total: 22 ------- | Rs. 16150-42590 |
|
Sunday, June 26, 2011
Friday, June 24, 2011
Thursday, June 23, 2011
LPCET-2011 KEY
| Click on following links to View & Download Answer Keys |
| Telugu Pandit Answer Key |
| Urdu Pandit Answer Key |
| Hindi Pandit Answer Key |
Tuesday, June 21, 2011
Monday, June 20, 2011
Sunday, June 19, 2011
TTD NURSE RECRUITMENT
Online applications are invited from the eligible candidates for the post of NURSE in TTD with the following qualifications. The last date for filling of online application is 10-07-2011.The TTD management has right to cancel / postpone the notification and selection process if any, without any intimation to the candidates on administrative reasons.
PERSONS PROFESSING HINDU RELIGION SHOULD ONLY APPLY.
PERSONS PROFESSING HINDU RELIGION SHOULD ONLY APPLY.
1 | Name of the Post | : | NURSE | |
2 | Number of posts | : | 15 (Fifteen) | |
3 | Communal Category | : | OC(W) - 03 BC-A - 01 BC-B - 01 BC-D - 01 SC - 02 ST - 01 OC(HH-W) – 01 OC(Ex-Ser) - 01 -------- Total : 15 ------- NB: For OC (Ex-Servicemen) post – if there shall be no suitable candidate is available from ex-servicemen, the turn allotted to Ex-Servicemen shall be deemed to be allotted to Open Competition as per the Rule 22 in the sub rule (2) in clause (e), for the provision (i) in A.P. State & Sub-ordinate Service Rules 1996 | |
4 | QUALIFICATIONS | : | 1. Must possess B.Sc Nursing Degree from an institution approved by the State Government. 2. Must be registered with A.P. Nursing council. | |
5 | Age | : |
| |
6 | Scale of Pay | : | 12910-36700 |
Saturday, June 18, 2011
Thursday, June 16, 2011
RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION FOR THE POST OF PEON
VIJAYA BANK
Regional Office : Vijayawada
VIJAYA BANK, a leading listed Public Sector Bank, having Head Office in Bangalore, with all India representation, invites applications for recruitment for the post of PEON in Andhra Pradesh State.
RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION
Last date for receipt of applications : 18.06.2011
Last date for receipt of applications : 20.06.2011
from far-flung areas
1. Name of the Post : PEON
2. Cadre : Sub-staff
3. Scale of Pay & allowances : Rs.5850-200/4-6650-250/5-7900-300/4-9100-350/3-10150
-400/3-11350
4. Number of Vacancies : As detailed below :
Name of the State | SC | ST | OBC | General | Total |
Andhra Pradesh | - | - | - | 1 | 1 |
Abbreviation stands for SC - Scheduled Caste
ST - Scheduled Tribe
OBC - Other Backward Classes
5. Minimum Age as on 31.03.2011 : 18 years
6. Maximum Age as on 31.03.2011 : 26 years
7. Relaxation in upper age limit :
a) Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe candidates by 5 years, OBC candidates by 3 years (against notified vacancies).
b) PWD Candidates -10 years
c) Ex-serviceman means a person who has served in the rank of Havaldar or below (whether as a combatant or as a non-combatant) in the regular Army or equivalent rank in Navy or Air Force of the Indian Union but does not include a person who has served in the Defence Security Corps, the General Reserve Engineering Force, the Lok Sahayak Sena and the Para Military Forces, and
a. Who has retired from such service after earning his pension OR
b. Who has been released from such service on medical grounds attributable to Military Service or circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension OR
c. Who has been released otherwise than on his own request, from such service as a result of reduction in establishment OR
d. Who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement, otherwise than at his own request or by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency, and has been given a gratuity, and includes personnel of the Territorial Army of the following categories :
i. Pension holders for continuous embodied service;
ii. Persons with disability attributable to military service; and
iii. Gallantory award winners
is eligible for age relaxation by 3 years plus period of service in Armed Forces subject to ceiling of 45 years of age.
d) All persons who are ordinarily being domiciled in Kashmir Division of Jammu & Kashmir State during 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989 by 5 years.
e) The children/Family members of those who died in the 1984 riots by 5 years.
f) Widows, divorced women and women judicially separated from their husbands, who have not remarried (subject to maximum of -40- years of age) by 9 years.
Note: a) An Ex-serviceman who has once joined a government job i.e., the civil side after availing of the benefits given to him as an ex-serviceman for his re-employment, his ex-serviceman status for the purpose of the employment in Government ceases. b) The relaxation in upper age limit is allowed on cumulative basis as per Government guidelines. c) All candidates eligible for age relaxation under Sl.No. 7 (a) & (b) should produce a copy of the caste certificate/ disability certificate, as the case may be. d) All candidates eligible for age relaxation under Sl.No. 7(d) must produce the domicile certificate at the time of interview from the District Magistrate in the Kashmir Division within whose jurisdiction he/she had ordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this regard by Government of J&K to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of J&K during 1 st Jan, 1980 to the 31 st day of December 1989.
8. Eligibility Criteria : Nationality/Citizenship :
A candidate must be either (i) a citizen of India or (ii) a subject of Nepal or (iii) a subject of Bhutan or (iv) a Tibetian refugee who came over to India before 01.01.1962, with the intention of permanently settling in India or (v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, east African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Mallawi, Zaha, Ethiopia and Vietnam, with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that the candidates belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above, should be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by Government of India. A candidate in whose case a notification of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the interview conducted by the Bank but on final selection, the offer of appointment may be given, only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.
9. Educational Qualification : Minimum 8 th Standard pass but 12 th/PUC or equivalent failed.
10. Knowledge of Regional Language : The candidates should be able to read, write and speak the Regional Language.
11. Selection Process : Selection will be made on the basis of interview. Merely satisfying the eligibility norms do not entitle the candidate to becalled for interview.The Bank reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for the interview after preliminary screening/short-listing with reference to candidates’ qualification and suitability.
12. Application fee & Postage charges (Non-refundable):
For SC/ST & Physically challenged candidates: Rs.50/- towards postage only.
For others : Rs.200/- per application (including postage
charge of Rs.50/-)
The fees as stated above, should be sent by Demand Draft favouring “ Vijaya Bank - Recruitment of Peons - 2011", payable at Vijayawada. Cash/Cheques/Money Orders/ Postal Stamps/Postal Orders, etc., will not be accepted. Candidate’s name and date of birth should be written on the reverse of the demand draft. Application once made will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the fees & postage once paid, will not be refunded on any account nor can it be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.
13. General Instructions :
a) Probation : Six months
b) Bank takes no responsibility for any delay in receipt or loss in postal transit of any application or communication.
c) Before applying to the post, the candidate should ensure that he/ she fulfils the eligibility and other norms mentioned in this advertisement. Decision of Bank in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, the stages at which such scrutiny of eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents to be produced for the purpose of the conduct of interview, selection and any other matter relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate. The Bank in this behalf, shall entertain no correspondence or personal enquiries. In case, it is detected at any stage of recruitment that a candidate does not fulfill the eligibility norms and/or that he/ she has furnished incorrect/ false information or has suppressed any material facts, his/ her candidature will automatically stand cancelled. If any of these shortcomings is/ are detected, even after appointment, his/ her services are liable to be terminated without any notice.
d) The candidates should submit along with the application, certified copies of documents evidencing their qualification, experience, if any, date of birth, etc.
e) Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC should send an attested copy of their caste certificate issued recently by the Competent Authority. However, these candidates will have to produce original caste certificates/ relevant certificates at the time of interview, failing which, his/ her candidature will be cancelled.
f) The PWD candidates should send attested copy of their disability certificate issued recently by the competent authority. However, these candidates have to produce the original disability certificates at the time of interview, failing which, his/her candidature will be cancelled.
g) An application not accompanied by copies of relevant certificates, wherever necessary, or requisite fee is not remitted or not in prescribed format or not signed by the candidate or incomplete in any respect, will not be entertained.
h) A recent recognizable passport size photograph should be firmly pasted on the application and should be signed across by the candidate. 3 copies of the same photograph should be retained for use at the time of interview. The candidates are advised not to change their appearance till the recruitment process is complete. Failure to produce the same photograph at the time of interview may lead to disqualification.
i) Any request for change of address will not be entertained.
j) Any resultant dispute arising out of this advertisement shall be subject to the sole jurisdiction of the Courts situated in Vijayawada.
k) The Bank takes no responsibility to connect/collect any certificate/remittance sent separately.
l) In case any dispute arises on account of interpretation in version other than English, English version will prevail.
m) Appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/ her being declared medically fit as per the requirement of the Bank. Such appointment will also be subject to the service and conduct rules of the Bank.
n) Action against candidates found guilty of misconduct : Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated or should not suppress any material information while filling up the application form. At the time of interview, if a candidate is (or has been) found guilty of (a) using unfair means during the interview or impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person or resorting to any irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature by selection or obtaining support for his/ her candidature by any means, such a candidate may in addition to rendering himself/ herself liable to criminal prosecution and to be disqualified for a specified period, from any examination or recruitment conducted by the Bank.
o) Persons who have taken voluntary retirement under the special scheme introduced by public sector banks are not eligible to apply.
14. The Competent Authority for the issue of the certificate to SC/ST/OBC is as under:
a) District Magistrate / Additional District Magistrate/Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner.
b) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate.
c) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar.
d) Sub-divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/ her family normally resides.
15. For Persons with Disability :
Authorised certifying authority will be Medical Board at the District level. The Medical Board will consist of Chief Medical Officer, Sub-Divisional Medical Officer in the District and an orthopaedic surgeon.
a) i) Application should be neatly typed or hand-written in English/Hindi/Vernacular on a foolscap size paper in the format given at the end of this advertisement.
ii) A recent passport size photograph bearing full signature of the candidate across the same with date should be pasted at the right hand top corner at the space provided in the application.
iii) It should also be accompanied by Demand Draft (candidate’s name and date of birth should be written on the reverse of the demand draft) and attested copies of certificates/testimonials, medical certificate.
iv) Copies of experience certificate, if any, specifying nature and period of experience should be enclosed.
b) Selected candidates will be required to produce a valid discharge certificate from the present employer before joining the service, if already in service.
Application complete in all respects should be sent only by ordinary post in a closed envelope, superscribed ‘Application for the post of Peon’ at the following address :
The Asst. General Manager
Vijaya Bank,
Regional Office,
No.31-3-4B,
Masjid Street,
Marutinagar, Vijayawada.
Andhra Pradesh -500001
17. Last date for receipt of applications: 18.06.2011 a) The applications should reach the addressee on the specified address on or before 18.06.2011
b) For the candidates staying abroad and for those posting application for Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Minicoy islands, Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Ladakh division of J&K State, Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi sub-division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, the last date for receipt of application will be 20.06.2011
The Bank will not be responsible for loss of application in transit or for rejection of application because of non-receipt of application on or before the stipulated date.
Wednesday, June 15, 2011
Tuesday, June 14, 2011
Monday, June 13, 2011
ISRO NRSC SCIENTISTS RECRUITMENT
Government of India, Department of Space
Indian Space Research Organisation
National Remote Sensing Centre
Balanagar, Hyderabad 500625
National Remote Sensing Centre are inviting applications for the following posts:
Scientist/ Engineer-SC: 14 Posts in various disciplines
Pay: Rs. 15,600-39,100 + GP Rs. 5,400
Last Date: 05.07.2011
For details you can see the link below:
http://www.nrsa.gov.in/
Sunday, June 12, 2011
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I SOLVED PAPER
Time Allowed: Two Hours, Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET
2. ENCOLDE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C, OR D AT THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will
be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
PAPER-I
(1) Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways :
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
(2) Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
Ans. d
(3) What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for. the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
Ans. a
(4) What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(5) Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Ans. a
(6) A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
Ans. a
(7) Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
Ans. b
(8) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. a
(9) A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(10) With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(11) Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. b
(12) Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans. b
(13) Consider the following statements :In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in die metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
(14) What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(15) Regarding international Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) It grants loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country
Ans. c
(16) In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. b
(17) Consider the following:1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(18) Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular,
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2,3 and 4
Ans. a
(19) India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be thereasons?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the% people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above1 are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(20) At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(21) In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to(a) Export
(b) Import
(c) Production
(d) Consumption
Ans. a
(22) Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water, treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(23) Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal, stimulus”?(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
(c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion
Ans. b
(24) The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?(a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric’ clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
Ans. b
(25) Consider the following actions which the Government can take:1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. a
(26) The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(27) Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal
Ans. a
(28) A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) ‘given above is correct in this context
Ans. c
(29) India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
(d) Its high total population
Ans. b
(30) Regarding “carbon, credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are- traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
Ans. b
(31) Consider the following :1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(32) There is a concern: over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(33) Consider the following :1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. c
(34) Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”. What is the difference between them?1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar- Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(35) The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Ans. a
(36) A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
Ans. b
(37) La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino?1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(38) The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?(a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
Ans. b
(39) Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general
Ans. b
(40) Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation- of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities
Ans. d
(41) India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing .explanation/explanations?(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context
Ans. b
(42) What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas-Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
(d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context
Ans. c
(43) With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(44) With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(45) What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants ofKheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(46) The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as art excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots
Ans. d
(47) The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by(a) Universal Law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul
Ans. a
(48) Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
Ans. b
(49) The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots,
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
(50) Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(51) An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction Of Earth(a) does not exist at such distance
(b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
Ans. c
(52) In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements :1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(53) In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions
Ans. a
(54) Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth?1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(55) Why is die Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) ?1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned-from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
(56) What is die difference between asteroids and comets?1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(57) Economic growth is usually coupled with(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation
Ans. b
(58) The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
Ans. a
(59) Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere
Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(60) Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which ofthe following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(61) Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
(d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation
Ans. c
(62) A “closed economy” is an economy in which(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place
Ans. d
(63) When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts
(b) Roots are starved of energy
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration
Ans. a
(64) The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade
Ans. a
(65) Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
Ans. c
(66) Human activities in the recent past have Caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of1. its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. the photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. c
(67) In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. b
(68) If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) the rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
Ans. a
(69) The Himalayan Range is Very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the mostappropriate reason for this phenomenon?
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference
Ans. b
(70) With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Acts
Ans. c
(71) Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin’s theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
Ans. d
(72) A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(73) Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
Ans. b
(74) A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
Ans. a
(75) With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements:1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(76) Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the die since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?(a) They activate the enzyme necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and protein in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radical produced in the body during metabolism
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process
Ans. a
(77) Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(78) The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
Ans. c
(79) What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(80) The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(81) Consider the following statements:1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.c
(82) The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Ans. d
(83) A state in India has the following characteristics:1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. b
(84) What is “Virtual Private Network”?(a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network
Ans. b
(85) The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India, In this context, consider the following statements:1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(86) In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only .
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(87)The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction
Ans. a
(88) In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only’
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(89) India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under me law?1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for getting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(90) With what purpose is the-Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry-
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco—friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(91) The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime. Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance, Minister
Ans. b
(92) All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Ans. c
(93) Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are:1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
(94) Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
(b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character
Ans. d
(95) A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(96) Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
Ans. d
(97) With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(98) When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans. d
(99) Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans. a
(100) With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans. d
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