Monday, May 27, 2013

Dr. B.R. AMBEDKAR OPEN UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAM - 2013


UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

1.    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.    Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)    In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer (C)

3.    Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    Geographical Feature        Region      
(a)    Abyssinian Plateau:            Arabia
(b)    Atlas Mountains:            North Western Africa
(c)    Guiana Highlands:        :    South Western Africa          
(d)    Okavango Basin:            Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.    The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.    The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.    At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.    Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.    across different species of plants
2.    from animals to plants
3.    from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.    The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.    The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.   
2.    As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.    The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only-
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.    Consider the following:
1.    Star tortoise
2.    Monitor lizard
3.    Pygmy hog
4.    Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.    Arsenic
2.    Sorbitol
3.    Fluoride
4.    Formaldehyde
5.    Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2, 4 and 5 only
(c)    1, 3 and 5 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.    With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)    directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.    Consider the following animals:
1.    Sea cow
2.    Sea-horse
3.    Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.    If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.    take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.    be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.    speak in the Lok Sabha
4.    vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 4
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.    Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.    Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.    Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)    the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)    the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)    latitudinal position of the place
(d)    revolution  of the  earth  on  a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.    It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.    It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.    The land  slopes  to  the  west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

16.    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)    is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)    is  found in  freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)    exists as groundwater
(d)    exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.    Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve    : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake    Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :    Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

18.    Consider the following:
1.    Electromagnetic radiation
2.    Geothermal energy
3.    Gravitational force
4.    Plate movements
5.    Rotation of the earth
6.    Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)    1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.    National Development Council
2.    Planning Commission
3.    Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)    writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)


21.    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)    with   the   consent   of  all   the States
(b)    with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)    with the consent of the States concerned
(d)    without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.    In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)    insects and fungi
(b)    limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)    water limits and fire
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

23.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)    Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24.  Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)    Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)    low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)    Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)    None to the above
Answer (A)

25.    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)    To provide self- governance
(b)    To recognize traditional rights
(c)    To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)


26.    Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)    State Forest Department
(b)    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)    Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.    Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)    bacteria
(b)    protozoa
(c)    moulds
(d)    viruses
Answer (C)

28.    'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)    None of the above
Answer (B)

29.    Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.    Beryllium
2.    Cadmium
3.    Chromium
4.    Heptachlor
5.    Mercury
6.    Lead
7.    Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)    1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)    carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)    carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)    ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)    nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.    With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.    A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.    Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.    A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
    National Park    River flowing through the Park
1.    Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.    Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.    Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    3 only
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (D)

33.    Consider the following organisms:
1.    Agaricus
2.    Nostoc
3.    Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    3 only
Answer (C)

34.    Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.    Excretion of urea by animals
2.    Burning of coal by man
3.    Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.    In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.        Tamil Nadu
2.         Kerala
3.    Karnataka
4.    Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)    There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)    The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)    The complete annihilation of self
(c)    A state of bliss and rest
(d)    A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)    Fundamental Rights
(b)    Fundamental Duties
(c)    Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)    Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)    there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)    the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.    Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)    Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)    Cripps Proposals
(c)    Simon Commission Report
(d)    Wavell Plan
Answer (B)


41.    The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)    all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)    goods exported from a country during a year
(c)    economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)    capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.    The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.    liquidity of assets
2.    branch expansion
3.    merger of banks
4.    winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 4 only
(b)    2, 3 and 4 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.    An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)    market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)    Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)    Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)    economic development
(b)    redemption of public debt
(c)    adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.    They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.    They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.    They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.    Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.    Chikungunya
2.    Hepatitis B
3.    HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)        1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.    The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.    Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.    Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.    Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)    NO2, O3 and     peroxyaceryl nitrate in the    presence of sunlight
(b)    CO, O2 and     peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the    presence    of
(c)    CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)    high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.    Consider the following minerals:
1.    Calcium
2.    Iron
3.    Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.    consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.    scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.    examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.    Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.    Dadu Dayal
2.    Guru Nanak
3.    Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)    1 and 3
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.    Virus
2.    Fungi
3.    Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.    The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)    warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)    rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)    warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)    continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.    Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.    Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.    Coexistence of a large number of species
3.    Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.    Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.    Foreign Loans
2.    Foreign Direct Investment
3.    Private Remittances
4.    Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    1, 2 and 4
(c)    2, 3 and 4
(d)    1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.    Consider the following historical places:
1.    Ajanta Caves
2.    Lepakshi Temple
3.    Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

58.    With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the    following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.    Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.    Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any  exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.    Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.    Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.    Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.    Thermal difference between land and water
2.    Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.    Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.    Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)


61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.    High ash content
2.    Low sulphur content
3.    Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.    They are generally red in colour.
2.    They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.    They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.    Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    2, 3 and 4
(c)    1 and 4
(d)    2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.    Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.    Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

64.    Consider the following crops:
1.    Cotton
2.    Groundnut
3.    Rice
4.    Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)    1 and 4
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
    The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    (a)    African Savannah
    (b)    Central Asian Steppe
    (c)    North American Prairie
    (d)    Siberian Tundra
    Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
    1.    Inflation benefits the debtors.
    2.    Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer (A)

67.    Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)    large number of people remain unemployed
(b)    alternative employment is not available
(c)    marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)    productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.    The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.    The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.    National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.    The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.    The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.    While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.    With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.    Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.    It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.    meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.    lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.    violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.    Consider the following pairs:
    Tribe        State
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 4 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.    Demand deposits with the banks
2.    Time deposits with the banks
3.    Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)    1-4-3-2
(b)    4-3-2-1
(c)    2-3-1-4
(d)    4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.    In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)    borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)    lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)    purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)     None of the above
Answer (C)

76.    Priority Sector Lending by banks in
    India constitutes the lending to
(a)    agriculture
(b)    micro and small enterprises
(c)    weaker sections
(d)    All of the above
Answer (D)

77.    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)    Engineering
(b)    Paper and pulp
(c)    Textiles
(d)    Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)    Promoting skill development
(b)    Introducing more social security schemes
(c)    Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)    Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.    In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)    Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)    Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)    A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.    Annie Besant was
1.    responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.    the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.    once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)


81.    The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)    imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)    imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)    removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)    removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.    A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.    an increase in the money supply
2.    a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.    an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.    Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)    Repayment of public debt
(b)    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)    Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.    Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)    a fall in the level of prices
(b)    an increase in the rate of interest
(c)    a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)    an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)    exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)    concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)    rate of respiration is decreased
(d)    there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.    Consider the following fauna of India:
1.    Gharial
2.    Leatherback turth
3.    Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (C)

89.    Consider the following phenomena:
1.    Size of the sun at dusk
2.    Colour of the sun at dawn
3.    Moon being visible at dawn
4.    Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.    Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    3, 4 and 5
(c)    1, 2 and 4
(d)    2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.    Dispersion
2.    Refraction
3.    Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)    the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)    most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)    most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)    leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.    Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)    there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)    there is population growth in X
(c)    there is capital formation in X
(d)    the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.    Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.    Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.    Hard and waxy leaves
2.    Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.    Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)    Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)    Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.    It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.    It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.    It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.    Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.    resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.    tolerate extremes of pH
3.    resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.    The Prime Minister
2.    The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.    Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.    Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1, 3 and 4 only
(c)    2 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)    total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)    sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)    sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)    money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.    Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.    Regional Rural Banks
2.    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.    Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)


Sunday, May 26, 2013

Union Public Service Commission Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts:
  1. Assistant Professor (Mechanical Engineering): 01 Post
  2. Senior Administrative Officer Grade-I: 13 Posts
  3. Senior Administrative Officer Grade-II: 09 Posts
  4. Lecturer (Mathematics): 01 Post
  5. Lecturer (Physics): 01 Post
  6. Junior Research Officer (Tibetan): 01 Post
  7. Stores Officer: 45 Posts
  8. Meteorologist Grade-II (Agriculture): 07 Posts
  9. Meteorologist Grade-II (Civil Engineering): 02 Posts
  10. Meteorologist Grade-II (Computer Science & Engineering): 07 Posts
  11. Meteorologist Grade-II (Electronics and Communication Engineering): 08 Posts
  12. Meteorologist Grade-II (Electrical and Electronics Engineering or Instrumentation Engineering): 11 Posts
  13. Meteorologist Grade-II (Geophysics & Geology) : 04 Posts
  14. Meteorologist Grade-II (Mathematics or Statistics): 04 Posts
  15. Meteorologist Grade-II (Physics or Meteorology or Atmospheric Sciences): 28 Posts
  16. Deputy Director (Export Promotion): 01 Post
  17. Junior Mining Geologist: 03 Posts
  18. Principal Library & Information Officer: 01 Post
  19. Professor of Social Management: 01 Post
  20. Economic Officer: 07 Posts
  21. Assistant Executive Engineer (Electronics): 15 Posts
  22. Assistant Director: 01 Post
  23. Research Officer (Scientific-Physics): 03 Posts
  24. Professor Hospital Administration-Cum-Medical Superintendent: 01 Post
  25. Senior Lecturer (Forensic Medicine): 01 Post
  26. Senior Lecturer (Immuno Hematology and Blood Transfusion): 01 Post
  27. Senior Lecturer (Radio-Diagnosis): 02 Posts
  28. Junior Research Officer (Bhutanese): 01 Post
  29. Junior Research Officer (Burmese): 01 Post

    How to Apply: Candidates can apply online.

    Important Dates:
    • Last date for registering online application is 13/06/2013.
    • Last date for printing of completely submitted online application 14/06/2013.
More details click here

Sunday, May 19, 2013

National Insurance Company Limited Assistant in Class-III Cadre Recruitment

National Insurance Company Limited invites application for the post of Assistants in Class-III Cadre. 

Total posts: 2600

Qualification: Graduate from a recognized University OR Pass in HSC/Equivalent (XII pass) examination with 60% marks (50% for Ex-servicemen, SC/ST and Persons with Disabilities) and Knowledge of Regional Language i.e. Language of the State of Recruitment is essential

Emoluments: Rs.15000/-

Age: (As on 30th June 2013)-Minimum Age: 18 years; Maximum Age: 28 years (as on 30.06.2013)

Selection Process: a). All candidates shall appear for the written test, thereafter, shortlisted candidates will be called for Interview and Computer Proficiency Test. b).Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in these tests taken together. Merely satisfying the eligibility norms do not entitle a candidate to be called for Written Test/Computer Proficiency Test/Interview.

How to apply:

Applications are to be submitted online
To apply online https://www.onlinesubmit.in/nicl2013/

Application Fees: With the printout of the challan, the candidate should visit the nearest SBI branch to deposit the appropriate fees in cash in Account no.32968716721 in favour of "National Insurance Company Limited.” Fee payment will be accepted between 18th May and 12th June. 

Important Dates:

On line Registration commences from: 18th May 2013
Last Date for Registration of Online Applications: 8th June 2013
Payment of Application fees: 18th May 2013 to 12th June 2013 (both date inclusive)

More details click here

Thursday, May 9, 2013

Defence Research & Development Organisation Recruitment of Various Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts:
1. Senior Technical Assistant- 'B': 360 Posts
2. Technician -'A': 223 Posts
3. Admin & Allied: 261 Posts

Fee: Nonrefundable fee of Rs. 50/- is to be paid online for online applications through Credit Card/Debit Card/Net banking. For offline applications, the fee is to be paid through Indian Postal Order (IPO) issued in favour of “The Director, CEPTAM, Delhi”, payable at Delhi. The Cheque/Draft/Money order will NOT be accepted in any condition. Candidates belonging to SC/ST/ ESM/ PWD categories and women candidates are exempted from payment of fee.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply through DRDO Website www.drdo.gov.in. All the interested applicants shall compulsorily required to register themselves on mobile no 56677 of CEPTAM by sending a SMS in this format CEPTAM First choice of Exam City Code Post Code Date of Birth as DD/MM/YY Name (Leaving a space between first, middle and last name). After delivery of your SMS, you will receive an auto-generated response message with “Registration No” based on exam city code, post code and sequence no (based on post code). Mention this Registration No. in your application form.

For Post 1: Candidates applying for the posts of Senior Technical Assistant- 'B' are required to apply online and applications received in any other mode shall be rejected. Online application printout is however to be sent to Director, CEPTAM along with required enclosures.

For Post 2 & 3: Candidates applying for the posts Technician -'A' and Admin & Allied have the option to apply either Online or Offline. They can apply in prescribed application format as given in the notification and send the filled in application form along with all relevant documents to DRDO Entry Test- 2013, Post Box No.: 8626, Delhi-110 054 by ordinary posts.

Important Dates:
  • Opening date for Online Registration: 08/05/2013.
  • Last date for Receipt of Application: 27/05/2013.
  • Date of Examination: 25/08/2013 (Sunday).
For more details Click here

Monday, April 22, 2013

BSNL ANDHRA PRADESH CIRCLE TELECOM TECHNICAL ASSISTANTS RECRUITMENT

 
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) Andhra Pradesh Telecom Circle invited Applications  for the following  300 posts of Telecom Technical Assistant (TTAs) in the Pay scale of Rs. 13600 - 25420 in various Districts/ Secondary Switching Areas (SSAs).

Telecom Technical Assistant (TTAs) : 300 posts
Qualification : 3 years Engineering Diploma inTelecommunication Engineering/ Electronics Engineering/ Electrical Engineering/ Radio Engineering/ Computer Engineering / Instruments Technology/Information Technology / M.Sc. (Electronics).
 
Age : 18 to 27 years. Relaxation as per rules.

Application Fee : Rs.500/- in the form of Postal Order/ DD only favouring "The Accounts Officer (Cash), .... (name of SSA)....." . No fee for SC/ST/PH candidates. 

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should reach Assistant General Manager of the SSA concerned for which the candidate wishes to apply at the address given above, latest by 13/05/2013. 

For more information and application form visit http://www.ap.bsnl.co.in/flashapnews/TTA%20DR-12%20Advt.pdf 


Thursday, April 18, 2013

Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited Recruitment

Technical Assistant Gd. III (Chemistry): 20 Posts 
  1. Qualification: Post Graduate Degree in Chemistry. 
  2. Assistant Technician (Civil): 07 Posts
    Qualification: Three (3) years Diploma in Civil Engineering. 
  3. Assistant Technician (Electrical): 29 Posts
    Qualification: Three (3) years Diploma in Electrical Engineering. Should have Valid Certificate of Competency as Electrical Supervisor. 
  4. Assistant Technician (Electronics): 03 Posts
    Qualifications: Three (3) years Diploma in Electronics / Telecom / E&T Engineering OR M.Sc. in Physics with Electronics. 
  5. Assistant Technician (Instrumentation): 06 posts
    Qualification: Three (3) years Diploma in Instrumentation Engineering. 
  6. Security Supervisor: 05 Posts
    Qualification: Graduate with relevant experience in the field of Security. Physical Standards, Physical Efficiency as specified below and Tests apply. 
  7. Assistant Rigman (Drilling): 11 Posts
    Qualifications:
     Three (3) years Diploma in Mechanical Engineering / Petroleum Engineering. Physical Standards as specified below and Test apply. 
  8. Assistant Gd. III (Transport): 01 Post
    Qualifications:
     Three (3) years Diploma in Auto/ Mechanical Engineering/ Post Graduate Diploma in Business Management/ Administration OR Post Graduate. Valid Heavy Vehicle Driving Licence essential. 
  9. Assistant Technician (Production): 10 Posts
    Qualifications: Three (3) years Diploma in -Mechanical Engineering / Chemical Engineering / Petroleum Engineering. 
  10. Assistant Technician (Mechanical): 10 Posts
    Qualification: Three (3) years Diploma in Mechanical Engineering. 
  11. Junior Security Supervisor: 05 Posts
    Qualifications: Intermediate with 6 months' training/experience in security. Physical Standards, Physical Efficiency as specified below and Tests apply. 
  12. Junior Assistant Technician (Boiler): 04 Posts
    Qualifications: i). Matric with Science (10th Std.) PASS. ii). II Class Boiler Attendants (Oil/Gas fired) Certificate.
  13. Junior Assistant Technician (Diesel): 07 Posts
    Qualifications:
     i). Matric with Science (10th Std.) PASS. ii). ITI Trade Certificate in Diesel. 
  14. Junior Assistant Technician (Fitting): 06 Posts
    Qualifications:
     i). Matric with Science (10th Std.) PASS. ii). ITI Trade Certificate in Fitting. 
  15. Junior Assistant Technician (Machining): 01 Post
    Qualifications:
     i). Matric with Science (10th Std.) PASS. ii) ITI Trade Certificate in Machining. 
  16. Junior Assistant Technician (Production): 02 Posts
    Qualifications:
     i). Matric with Science (10th Std.) PASS. ii). ITI Trade Certificate in Fitting/ Diesel/ Instrumentation / Turner/ Machining/ Tractor/ Motor Vehicle/ Welding/ Black smithy/ Boiler Attendant/ Machinist Grinder. 
  17. Junior Assistant Technician (Welding): 03 Posts
    Qualifications:
     i). Matric with Science (10th Std.) PASS. ii). ITI Trade Certificate in Welding. 
  18. Junior Motor Vehicle Driver (Winch): 01 Post
    Qualification: Matric PASS with Valid Driving Licence for Heavy Vehicle and three years driving experience of Heavy Vehicles. 
  19. Junior Assistant (Steno-English): 02 Posts
    Qualifications:
     Graduate with Typing speed 30 w.p.m. & Shorthand at 80 w.p.m. Certificate / Diploma of minimum duration of six months in Computer Applications in the Office environment. Tests apply. 
  20. Junior Assistant (Accounts): 03 Posts
    Qualifications:
     B.Com. with proficiency in Typing 30 w.p.m. and Certificate / Diploma of minimum duration of six months in Computer Applications in the Office environment. Tests apply. 
  21. Junior Assistant (P&A): 02 Posts
    Qualifications: Graduate with Typing speed 30 w.p.m. with Certificate / Diploma of minimum duration of six months in Computer Applications in the office environment. Tests apply. 
  22. Junior Assistant (Materials Management): 03 posts
    Qualifications:
     B.Sc. With Physics or Math’s as one of the subjects with proficiency in Typing 30 w.p.m. with Certificate / Diploma of minimum duration of six months in computer applications in the Office environment. Tests apply. 
  23. Junior Fire Supervisor: 07 Posts
    Qualifications:
     i). Intermediate (12th Std.) PASS. ii). 6 months’ experience in Fire Services. iii). Physical Standards, Physical Efficiency as specified below and Tests apply. iv). Valid Driving Licence for Heavy Vehicles Essential. v). Testing of driving skills of Heavy Vehicle apply. 
  24. Junior Fireman: 09 Posts
    Qualifications: i). Matriculate (10th Std.) PASS ii). Fireman’s training of three months’ duration. iii). Physical Standards, Physical Efficiency as specified below and Tests apply. iv). Valid Driving Licence for Heavy Vehicles Essential. v). Testing of driving skills of Heavy Vehicle apply.
Fee: The candidates have to deposit the Registration Fee, after filling the details in the challan form like Branch Name, Branch code & Deposit date, in any of the branch of State Bank of India Rs. 300/- for GEN /OBC candidates, Rs. 100/- for SC/ST, PWD & Ex-Servicemen Candidates in ONGC Account No. 30827318409. Branch Code: 1576. No other mode of payment will be accepted. Registration Fee once paid is not refundable under any circumstances.

How to Apply: Candidates should apply online only. Once you submit your Application, the System will generate a unique Registration Number. Note down immediately the Number and take a print out of your Registration Slip, which will have details filled by the candidate. Printed Registration Slip with affixed recent photograph (3.5 x 4.5Cms with white background) and signature in the space provided along with all relevant documents should reach the Advertiser (ONGC-SS) P.O. Box: 9248 Krishna Nagar Head Post Office Delhi - 110051.

Important Dates:
  • Closing date of online Registration 06.05.2013.
  • Last date of receipt of Registration Slip 16.05.2013.
  • Written Test Date (Tentative) 09.06.2013.
For more details click here

Steel Authority of India Limited Recruitment


IISCO Steel Plant, a unit of Steel Authority of India Limited, invites applications for the following non-executive posts:

Operator-cum-Technician (Trainee): 300 Posts
  1. Mechanical: 75 Posts
  2. Electrical: 75 Posts
  3. Metallurgy: 40 Posts
  4. Electronics: 35 Posts
  5. Instrumentation: 35 Posts
  6. Chemical: 20 Posts
  7. Ceramics: 10 Posts
  8. Civil: 10 Posts
Qualifications: Three-years full time Diploma in engineering in Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Metallurgy/ Chemical/ Ceramics/ Civil, and Instrumentation discipline from government recognised Institute.

Attendant-cum-Technician (Trainee): 300 Posts
  1. Fitter: 95 Posts
  2. Electrician: 80 Posts
  3. Welder: 30 Posts
  4. Air-conditioning/ Refrigeration: 20 Posts
  5. Draughtsman: 10 Posts
  6. Electronics Mechanic: 30 Posts
  7. Machinist: 10 Posts
  8. Turner: 10 Posts
  9. Instrument Mechanics: 05 Posts
  10. IT & ESM: 10 Posts
Qualifications: Matriculation and ITI in Fitter/ Welder/ Electrician/ Air conditioning /Refrigeration/ /Draughtsman/Machinist/Turner/ Instrument Mechanic/ Electronic Mechanic / IT & ESM trades from Govt. Recognised Institute.

Operator-cum-Technician (Boiler Operation): 05 Posts
Qualifications: 3 years full time Diploma in engineering from government recognised institute with 2nd Class or 1st Class Certificate of Boiler Competency.

Application Fees and Processing Charges (Non-refundable):
  • For Operator-cum-Technician (Trainee) & Operator-cum-Technician (Boiler Operation): For SC/ST/PWD: 50/- (only processing fee) and For General/OBC: 250/-.
  • Attendant-cum-Technician (Trainee): For SC/ST/PWD: 50/- (only processing fee) and For General/OBC: 150/-.
How to Apply: Eligible and interested candidates are required to apply only through SAIL Website www.sail.co.in.

Important Dates:
  • Opening date for submission of online application 17/04/2013.
  • Closing date for submission of online application 13/05/2013.
For more details click here

Friday, April 12, 2013

Andhra Pradesh Cooperative Bank Ltd. librarian Recruitment


The Andhra Pradesh State Cooperative Bank Limited (APCOB) invite applications for filling up the vacant seats of Librarian post from skillful and result oriented candidates.
 
Librarian:
Qualifications: i). A Bachelor Degree in Library and Information Sciences from a recognized university, OR ii). A Certificate in Library Sciences from the Director, State Library, Govt. of A.P., Hyderabad.
 
How to Apply: Interested candidates should apply along with their bio-data and their application should reach the Andhra Pradesh Cooperative Bank Ltd, Cooperative Training Institute Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500030.
 
Last Date: 16/04/2013
For more details click here

LPCET-2013 Notification

Applications are invited from candidates who intend to take admission into one year Language Pandit Training Course (LPT) in Government IASEs/CTEs and Private Language Pandit Training Colleges in the state to be conducted by Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh.

Eligibility:
  1. Candidate should be of Indian Nationality. 
  2. He/ She should satisfy Local / Non Local Status requirements as per Presidential order 1974 and amendments thereon pertaining to Regulation of Admissions in Educational Institutions in Andhra Pradesh.
  3. Age Limit: The candidates should have completed 19 years of age as on the 1st July of the year of admission i.e. 01.07.2012. There is no upper age limit. 
  4. Educational Qualifications: The candidates who have passed the minimum qualifying examinations mentioned below are eligible to apply.


Telugu Pandit: BA (Telugu Literature) or BA (Oriental Language – Telugu) or Bachelor of Oriental Language Telugu or A Graduate degree with optional subject Telugu or MA (Telugu)

Hindi Pandit: A graduate degree with optional subject Hindi or Bachelor of Oriental Language Hindi or Praveen of Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha or Vidwan of Hindi Prachara Sabha, Hyderabad or any other equivalent recognized qualification in Hindi (BA Standard) by the Government of Andhra Pradesh or MA (Hindi).

Urdu Pandit: BA (Urdu Literature) or BA (Oriental Language Urdu) or Bachelor of Oriental Language Urdu or A Graduate Degree with optional subject Urdu of M.A (Urdu)

The candidates who have appeared for final qualifying examinations or its equivalent during this academic year are also eligible to apply LP CET-2013 Entrance Examination subject to the condition that they should produce their pass certificates at the time of counseling without fail.

How to apply: Through Online

Last date for submission of applications: 26 April, 2013

Source: http://lpcet.cgg.gov.in/

DIETCET- 2013 Notification


Applications are invited from candidates who intend to take admission into two-year Diploma in Education (D.Ed.,) in Government District Institutes of Educational Training (DIETs) and Private Elementary Teacher Training Institutions in the state to be conducted by Department of School Education, Government of Andhra Pradesh.

Eligibility: Candidate should be of Indian Nationality.

The candidate should satisfy Local/Non-Local Status requirements as laid down in the A.P. Educational Institutions (Regulation of admission) Order 1974 as subsequently amended.
  1. The candidate who passed or appeared for the 10+2 Examinations (qualifying examination) or its equivalent are eligible to appear for the entrance test. But they should have passed the qualifying examination by the time of admission. 
  2. The candidate should have secured 45 percent of marks in aggregate in qualifying examination. The minimum percentage of marks in the case of Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Physically Challenged candidates shall however be 40 percent.
Age Limit: The candidates should have completed 17 years as on 01- 09-2012. There is no upper age limit.

How to Apply: Through Online http://dietcet.cgg.gov.in
Last date for submission of applications: 26 April, 2013 Source: http://dietcet.cgg.gov.in/

Monday, April 8, 2013

United India Insurance Company Limited Administrative Officers Recruitment

United India Insurance Company Limited  invited applications for the following posts.
Administrative Officer (Scale I): 445 Posts
Qualifications: 
Graduation with 60% (55% for SC/ST candidates) or Post Graduation with minimum 55% (50% for SC/ST candidates) marks in aggregate from recognised University.

Application Fee: For SC/ ST/ Persons with Disability (PWD), Permanent Employees of UIICL Rs. 125/- and For All other categories (GEN/OBC/ECO/SSRCO) Rs. 525/-.
How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply online through website www.uiic.co.in. No other means/ mode of application will be accepted.
Important Dates:
• Last date for registration online application 18/04/2013
• Last date for payment of Fee (Offline mode) 22/04/2013
• Last date for payment of Fee (Online mode) 18/04/2013
• Date of Written Examination: 26.05.2013 (Sunday)

For more details Click here