Wednesday, March 14, 2012

DELHI UNIVERSITY B.ED. ENTRANCE EXAM., 2009




Part–I
General Awareness
Section ‘A’
(For Science Students only)
(Exam Held on 23-05-2009)  


1.   In fog, we are not able to see objects at a distance, although fog contains fine drops of water suspended in air and water is transparent. This is because—
(A)   the  light  rays  suffer  total internal reflection
(B)    most of the light is absorbed by the fog
(C)   most of the light is scattered
(D)   fog affects our vision adver-sely
2.   Which  of  the  following  state-ments regarding the consequen-ces of the movement of the earth is not correct ?
(A)   The rotation  of  the  earth causes variation in the duration of day and night
(B)    The revolution of the earth around the sun is the cause of the change of seasons
(C)   The rotation of the earth is the cause of day and night
(D)   The  rotation  of  the earth affects the movement of wind and ocean currents
3.   If a ship has to travel the shortest route, it must follow—
(A)   Latitudes
(B)    Streams
(C)   Along a great circle
(D)   Longitudes
4.   The auto shut off in electric equipment  works  on  the principle of the—
(A)   thermal effect
(B)    optical effect
(C)   diode
(D)   Both (A) and (B)
5.   For which of the following can ‘mode’ be used ?
(A)   The size of clothes
(B)    The size of shoes
(C)   Most frequently seen cable channels
(D)   All of the above
6.   Diesel engines are heavier than petrol engines because—
(A)   diesel is heavier
(B)    diesel    generates    more power
(C)   diesel is used in heavy vehicles
(D)   diesel was invented earlier
7.   Two unbiased coins are tossed in the air and both of them land with heads down. What are the chances that, on the next toss, atleast one will land with head upwards ?
(A)   25%               (B)  50%
(C)   75%              (D)  33%
8.   Cell  phones  work  on  the principle of—
(A)   sound waves
(B)    magnetic waves
(C)   ultrasonic waves
(D)   electromagnetic waves
9.   If there was no friction, which of the following would become impossible ?
(A)   Walking on the road
(B)    Using a toothpick
(C)   Using a pulley
(D)   All of the above
10.   For an electron moving in ‘s’ orbital, the total angular momen-tum is—
(A)   1/2                (B)  1
(C)   2                    (D)  0
11.   Which of the following disorder of the eye is treated by the use of cylinderical lenses ?
(A)   Myopia
(B)    Hypermetropia
(C)   Cataract
(D)   Astigmatism
12.   What quantity of oxygen (O2) contains  the  same  number  of molecules as 36·0 g of water ?
(A)   64.0 g            (B)  32.0 g
(C)   16.0 g           (D)  18 g
13.   In honour of which eminent Indian Scientist, is the National Science Day celebrated in India ?
(A)   J. C. Bose
(B)    C. V. Raman
(C)   S. Ramanujan
(D)   H. J. Bhabha
14.   Which of the following causes reduction in the ozone layer ?
(A)   Rising sea temperature
(B)    Use of specific refrigerants
(C)   Smog in the cities
(D)   Cutting trees
15.   The colours corresponding to the shortest and longest wavelength are—
(A)   red and green
(B)    green and red
(C)   red and violet
(D)   violet and red
16.   When salt is dissolved in water, the salt solution will have—
(A)   a lower boiling point than that of pure water
(B)    a higher boiling point than that of pure water
(C)   no change in the boiling point
(D)   a fluctuating boiling point
17.   The ‘Origin of Species’ written by Charles Darwin appeared first about—
(A)   100 years ago
(B)    150 years ago
(C)   200 years ago
(D)   250 years ago
18.   The difference between tap water and rain water is due to—
(A)   the presence of nitrates in rain water
(B)    the presence of nitrates in tap water
(C)   the presence of impurity in tap water
(D)   the presence of sulphates in rain water
19.   Among air, vacuum, water and glass, the speed of light is—
(A)   the same in all mediums
(B)    fastest in air
(C)   fastest in vacuum
(D)   the same in air and vacuum
20.   Between a dry, pen size cell and a big torch, of which cell is the voltage more ?
(A)   Both are the same
(B)    The torch cell is more
(C)   The pen size cell is more
(D)   None of the above
21.   A cassette tape and a CD are both used for sound recording. On what principle do they work ?
(A)   Both work on the same principle
(B)    The cassette works on soft laser and the CD on magnetic field
(C)   The cassette works on magnetic field and the CD on soft laser
(D)   The cassette works on soft magnetic field and the CD on strong magnetic field
22.   Capillary action is due to :
(A)   air pressure
(B)    surface tension
(C)   due to both air pressure and surface tension
(D)   the movement of air
23.   Decimals can also be represen-ted as—
(A)   integers
(B)    fractions
(C)   natural numbers
(D)   odd numbers
24.   Vaccination helps in controlling diseases as it—
(A)   kills the germs which cause disease
(B)    develops    resistance    to attack
(C)   prevents contact with germs
(D)   activates germs causing the disease
25.   The sun’s energy is produced as a result of—
(A)   explosion
(B)    fission
(C)   thermonuclear fusion
(D)   combustion
26.   The human body adopts to living at high altitudes by producing—
(A)   more white blood cells
(B)    more red blood cells
(C)   fewer white blood cells
(D)   fewer red blood cells
27.   The injection of large quantities of distilled water into a person’s veins would cause many of the red blood cells to—
(A)   shrink
(B)    form new cells
(C)   swell and burst
(D)   carry more oxygen
28.   The dissolved carbondioxide in rainwater makes it acidic. What happens to the pH of rain water when it falls upon a limestone rock ?
(A)   pH rises from 7 to 10
(B)    pH falls from 5 to 3
(C)   pH rises from 5 to 8
(D)   pH remains at 7
29.   Which of the following is likely to consist of one element ?
(A)   A silverspoon
(B)    A bronze statue
(C)   A brass plate
(D)   A steel tumbler
30.   When water is added to baking powder, the resultant solution formed would be—
(A)   alkaline
(B)    acidic
(C)   neutral
(D)   acidic as well as alkaline
31.   A solution conducting electric current confirms that the solu-tion—
(A)   has a variable boiling point
(B)    is a good oxidising agent
(C)   is a good reducing agent
(D)   contains ions
32.   If a magnet is divided into two pieces—
(A)   the magnet will loose its magnetic power
(B)    both the pieces will become independent magnets
(C)   one piece will behave like a North pole and the other like a South pole
(D)   the magnetic power of the magnet will increase
33.   The fuel used in nuclear reactors is—
(A)   hydrogen
(B)    liquid nitrogen
(C)   uranium
(D)   carbon isotope
34.   Our blood is—
(A)   neutral in nature
(B)    slightly alkaline in nature
(C)   highly alkaline in nature
(D)   slightly acidic in nature
35.   Paper is recyclable because—
(A)   paper is coarse
(B)    paper is fine
(C)   paper burns on heating
(D)   None of the above
36.   Most of the glucose in the human blood is transported by the—
(A)   red blood cells
(B)    plasma
(C)   platelets
(D)   white blood cells
37.   Nights are cool when—
(A)   the nights are cloudy and the days are clear
(B)    the nights are clear and the days are cloudy
(C)   both the nights and the days are cloudy
(D)   both the nights and the days are clear
38.   The first life came on earth—
(A)   in water
(B)    on land
(C)   in air
(D)   on the mountain
39.   Which of the following animals was not known to the Indus Valley Civilization ?
(A)   Bull               (B)  Horse
(C)   Elephant      (D)  Giraffe
40.   Aurora borealis is—
(A)   a medical term for boric powder
(B)    red and green lights in the sky near the North pole by electrical radiation
(C)   a chemical
(D)   a Russian master craftsman
Section ‘B’
(For Humanities and Social Science Students only)
1.   Which is the largest airport in the world ?
(A)   Singapore Airport
(B)    The Kaulalumpur Interna-tional Airport
(C)   Heathrow at London
(D)   The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia
2.   Prithvi is a—
(A)   Surface-to-air missile
(B)    Surface-to-surface missile
(C)   Air-to-surface missile
(D)   Air-to-air missile
3.   At the end of 2001, the Indian government approved the culti-vation of B. T. Cotton. Which multinational company is the major beneficiary of this deci-sion ?
(A)   Cargil           (B)  BASF
(C)   Monsanto    (D)  All of these
4.   The  World  Literacy  Day  is celebrated on—
(A)   8th September
(B)    5th June
(C)   15th August
(D)   5th September
5.   Which was the first University to be established in the world ?
(A)   Harvard University
(B)    Nalanda University
(C)   Oxford University
(D)   None of these
6.   The speed of light will be mini-mum while passing through—
(A)   glass             (B)  vacuum
(C)   air                 (D)  water
7.   Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the government of India to be mixed with petrol ?
(A)   Methanol     (B)  Ethanol
(C)   Kerosene     (D)  Butanol
8.   What is the name of the instru-ment  used  to  measure  blood pressure ?
(A)   Barometer
(B)    Hygrometer
(C)   Hydrometer
(D)   Sphygmomanometre
9.   Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got indepen-dence ?
(A)   Attlee           (B)  Churchill
(C)   Thatcher      (D)  Wilson
10.   Which, among the following, would you consider a historical source ?
(A)   Numismatics
(B)    Epigraphs
(C)   Rock paintings
(D)   Census reports
11.   What is not correct about a soft loan ?
1.     It is a loan bearing no rate of interest
2.     It has an interest rate which is above the true cost of the capital lent
3.        The world bank gives soft loans to developing coun-tries for long-term capital projects
(A)   Only 1          (B)  Only 2
(C)   2 and 3         (D)  1 and 3
12.   Which is the only historical monument which can be seen by the naked eyes from the moon ?
(A)   The Leaning Tower of Pisa
(B)    The Pyramids of Egypt
(C)   The Statue of Liberty, New York
(D)   The Great Wall of China
13.   Formal services of Credit do not include—
(A)   Self-help groups
(B)    Cooperatives
(C)   Employers
(D)   L. I. C.
14.   The most common route for investments by MNCs in coun-tries around the world is to—
1.      Set up new factories
2.      Buy existing local companies
3.      Form  partnerships  with local companies
4.      Invest in companies with low turn over
(A)   1, 3 and 4
(B)    2 and 3
(C)   2, 3 and 4
(D)   All of the above
15.   How many faces are there in an octahedron ?
(A)   4                    (B)  6
(C)   8                    (D)  12
16.   Night-blindness is caused by lack of which vitamin ?
(A)   Vitamin A   (B)  Vitamin B
(C)   Vitamin C   (D)  Vitamin D
17.   The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere is—
(A)   Argon           (B)  Nitrogen
(C)   Oxygen        (D)  Krypton
18.   The breadth of the railway broadgauge is approximately—
(A)   2·00 m          (B)  1·88 m
(C)   1·67 m          (D)  1·33 m
19.   Which is the richest soil among the following ?
(A)   Black soil
(B)    Red soil
(C)   Laterite soil
(D)   Alluvial soil
20.   Sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to the—
(A)   shape of earth
(B)    revolution of earth around the sun
(C)   rotation of earth on its axis
(D)   movements of the sun
21.   A person of which of the follo-wing blood group can receive blood of any group ?
(A)   A                   (B)  AB
(C)   B                   (D)  O
22.   Evergreen type of forests are found in—
(A)   Equatorial climate
(B)    Monsoon climatic region
(C)   Desert regions
(D)   Mediterranean region
23.   What is the other name for River Gangas ?
(A)   Sapthanadi
(B)    Bhageerathi
(C)   Savitri
(D)   Bhadravati
24.   The earth is—
(A)   Spherical
(B)    Elliptical
(C)   Oblate spheroid
(D)   Pralate spheroid
25.   Which of the following set can not enter into the list of funda-mental quantities in any system of units ?
(A)   Length, mass and velocity
(B)    Length, time and velocity
(C)   Mass, time and velocity
(D)   Length, time and mass
26.   Which of the following is/are the main agents of soil erosion ?
(A)   Wind and water
(B)    Rocks
(C)   Sand
(D)   High temperature and humi-dity
27.   Who is the minister of agri-culture of India ?
(A)   Sharad Pawar
(B)    Ram Vilas Paswan
(C)   Shiv Raj Patil
(D)   None of these
28.   Monsoon is caused by—
(A)   Revolution of earth
(B)    Movement of clouds
(C)   Seasonal reversal of the winds
(D)   Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land tempe-rature
29.   Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet ?
(A)   Omega         (B)  Sigma
(C)   Zeta              (D)  Chi
30.   Which is the birth place of Hitler ?
(A)   Germany     (B)  Hungary
(C)   Austria        (D)  France
31.   Who elects President of India ?
(A)   Lock Sabha
(B)    Rajya Sabha
(C)   People of India
(D)   Parliament and State Assem-blies
32.   Which  country  is  called the ‘Land of Cakes’ ?
(A)   Britain          (B)  Spain
(C)   France          (D)  Scotland
33.   Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas ?
(A)   Kathasaritsagar
(B)    Meghdutam
(C)   Raghuvansham
(D)   Pushpavan Vikasam
34.   In India, the chief minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential elections if—
(A)   he himself is a candidate
(B)    he is yet to prove his majo-rity in the State legislature
(C)   he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature
(D)   he  is  a  caretaker  Chief minister
35.   When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house ?
(A)   Whenever he desires
(B)    Whenever the house desires
(C)   In the event of equality of votes
(D)   Whenever his party directs
36.   Which of the following is not a cash crop ?
(A)   Jute               (B)  Paddy
(C)   Cashewnut (D)  Rubber
37.   Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the Bin Laden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia ?
(A)   Star Asia
(B)    B. B. C. Asia
(C)   Al Jazeera
(D)   Khaleed Times
38.   The oldest monarchy in the world is that of—
(A)   Nepal           (B)  U. K.
(C)   Spain            (D)  Japan
39.   Who was Karl Marx’s main colla-borator on his famous works ?
(A)   V. I. Lenin
(B)    Max Weber
(C)   Fredrick Engels
(D)   Joseph Stalin
40.   Which is the first Asian country to host   the   Commonwealth  Games ?
(A)   South Korea  (B)  Japan
(C)   Malaysia       (D)  China
Part–II
Intelligence Test
Directions—(Q. 41–44) These questions are based on the following six statements. Read them carefully and respond by choosing the appro-priate alternative.
All G’s are H’s.
All G’s are J’s or K’s.
All J’s and K’s are G’s.
All L’s are K’s.
All N’s are M’s.
No M’s are G’s.
41.   Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated ?
(A)   No M’s are H’s.
(B)    No M’s that are not N’s are H’s
(C)   Some M’s are H’s
(D)   No N’s are G’s.
42.   Which of the following is incon-sistent with one or more of the conditions ?
(A)   All H’s are G’s
(B)    Some H’s are both M’s and G’s
(C)   No M’s are H’s
(D)   All M’s are H’s
43.   The statement “No L’s are J’s” is—
1.      Logically deducible from the conditions stated
2.      Consistent with but not deducible from the condi-tions
3. Deducible from the stated conditions  to­  gether  with the   additional   statement “No J’s are K’s”
(A)   1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)   3 only
(D)   2 and 3 only
44.   If no P’s are K’s, which of the following must be true ?
(A)   All P’s are J’s
(B)    No P is a G
(C)   No P is an H
(D)   If any P is a G, it is a J.
Directions—(Q. 45–47) Read the following  questions  carefully  and answer these question.
At a formal dinner for eight, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table with 3 persons seated along the other two sides. Each man must be seated next to atleast one woman and vice versa. If M1, M2, M3, M4 are four men and W1, W2, W3, W4 are the women and they are seated in the manner that—
M1 sits opposite W1, who is not the hostess.
M2 has a women on his right and its opposite a woman
W2 is at the hostess’s right, next to M3
One person is seated between W3 and W4
45.   The eighth person present, M4, must be—
1.     the host
2.     seated to W1’s right
3.     seated opposite W4
(A)   1 only
(B)    3 only
(C)   1 and 2 only
(D)   2 and 3 only
46.   If each person is placed directly opposite his/her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married ?
(A)   M2 and W2   (B)  W3 and M3
(C)   M3 and W4  (D)  M4 and W2
47.   Which person is not seated next to the person of the same sex ?
(A)   M1                 (B)  W3
(C)   W4                (D)  W1
48.   Which of the following set of letters sequentially put in the respective blanks gives it a recognizable pattern ?
AB–ACDAA–AACDAABAA–DAABAAC–A
(A)   ABCD           (B)  AACD
(C)   ACDB          (D)  BCDA
49.   Which of the following would be the next term in the following series ?
1, 5, 11, 19, 29, 41
(A)   54                  (B)  55
(C)   56                  (D)  57
50.   If in a certain code AWARE-NESS is written as DZDUHQ-HVV, the same code KNOWLE-DGE would be written as—
(A)   NQRZPHGJH
(B)    NQRZOHGJI
(C)   NQRZOHGJH
(D)   NQRZOHGIH
51.   Rekha is standing facing the rising sun as it surfaces up from the horizon. She moves 15 metre to her right, turns left and moves 10 metre, turns right and moves 10 metre, turns right and moves 20 metre and finally turns right and moves 25 metres. She, in her present position, is—
(A)   15 metre South to her initial position
(B)    10 metre East to her initial position
(C)   15 metre North to her initial position
(D)   10 metre West to her initial position
52.   The rotation undergone by the minute hand of a clock as it transverses a distance of 255 minutes is—
(A)   1530 degrees
(B)    90 degrees
(C)   810 degrees
(D)   450 degrees
53.   In a group of 15, 7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied either. How many of these have studied both Latin and Greek ?
(A)   3                    (B)  4
(C)   5                    (D)  7
54.   If Dec. 2, 2008 was Tuesday, the day on the 217th day after Dec.   2, 2008 would be—
(A)   Monday        (B)  Tuesday
(C)   Wednesday  (D)  Thursday
55.   Which of the following is different from the rest ?
(A)   3, 9, 27, 81
(B)    2, 4, 8, 16
(C)   4, 16, 64, 256
(D)   1, 2, 3, 4
56.   The triangle formed by joining the midpoints of a given triangle will have area equal to—
(A)   one-fourth of the given triangle
(B)    one-eighth of the given triangle
(C)   one-third of the given triangle
(D)   nothing definite can be said
57.   Which of the following is not a correct sequence ?
(A)   Ore, iron, bars, grill, cage
(B)    Water, electricity, refrigera-tor, compressor, cooling
(C)   Breeding, egg, larva, pupa, insect
(D)   Seed, plant, grain, flour, bread
58.   A, B, C, D and E are five boys up on a ladder. B is 14 steps above ground and 21 steps below C. D is 5 steps below C and 11 steps above A.  E  is  4  steps  above ground and 15 steps below A. In such a situation, the boy middle most in position is—
(A)   A                   (B)  B
(C)   C                   (D)  D
Directions—(Q. 59–63) Identify the diagram that correctly represents the relationship mentioned in the questions.
59.   Tigers, Rabbits and animals—
60.   Clerks, Government employees and Educated persons—
61.   Doctors, Cats and Human Beings—
62.   Bananas, Apples and Fruits—
63.   Girls, Students and Athletes—
Directions—(Q. 64   and  65) Choose the word from the four options that has the same relationship with the third word in the question, as the second has with the first.
64.   Book : Read :: Pen : ………
(A)   Publisher     (B)  Ink
(C)   Stationery   (D)  Write
65.   Water : Wet :: Air : …………….
(A)   Pressure       (B)  Dry
(C)   Blow            (D)  Flow
Directions—Study the graph given below and answer question numbers 66 to 70.
Number of Distinction-holder Students
66.   Which class has the maximum number of distinction-holders ?
(A)   B                    (B)  E
(C)   D                   (D)  F
67.   Which class has the minimum number of distinction-holders ?
(A)   C                   (B)  D
(C)   E                   (D)  F
68.   If rank I was to be given to the class which has the maximum number  of  distinction-holders, which class would have rank    IV ?
(A)   A                   (B)  B
(C)   C                   (D)  D
69.   Which classes have more than 10, but less than 30 distinctions ?
(A)   A and C        (B)  C and D
(C)   A and B        (D)  B, C and D
70.   Which class has exactly half the number of distinctions of the class having the maximum number of distinctions ?
(A)   B                    (B)  A
(C)   F                   (D)  D
Part–III
Teaching Aptitude
Directions—Given below are twenty items. Each item has four alternatives. As such there are no right or wrong answers. They are mere opinions or different ways of thinking, feeling about or tackling a situation. Every alternative is right for someone or the other, as people may  have  different  viewpoints. Choose according to your immediate and first feeling, the alternative that impresses you most.
71.   Which of the following can be taken as a reflection of meaning-ful learning ?
(A)   A good score in the exami-nation
(B)    A high degree of retention
(C)   The capability of transfer-ring/using learning in different situations
(D)   The ability to recall as and when needed
72.   The most important thing for a student to gain a better insight in the subject is/are—
(A)   the notes given by the subject teacher in the class
(B)    the discussion facilitated by the teacher and held by the students  for  comprehending various  aspects  of  the  topic under reference
(C)   the source material arran-ged  by  the  teacher  for  the students
(D)   the scholarship of the teacher
73.   Schools should arrange co-curri-cular activities for the students, because—
(A)   curricular experiences are incomplete without supplements
(B)    interplay of curricular and co-curricular experiences gives a better insight into the content and its context
(C)   everybody   wants   co-curricular activities these days
(D)   co-curricular activities make the school’s program attractive.
74.   You are teaching in your class and it is almost the end of your session. A child of your class comes late and seeks your permission to enter the class. Being a good teacher, you will—
(A)   not permit the child, as it makes little sense coming to class so late
(B)    get annoyed, as you are disturbed
(C)   ask the child to explain his/her position before you take an appropriate decision
(D)   allow him/her to enter and ask him/her the reasons for being so late when the class gets over
75.   You enter your regular class to discover the children not in a mood to study that particular day. You will—
(A)   value the child’s precious time and world, therefore, teach as per your plan
(B)    feel  disturbed  seeing  the relectance  of  the  children  to study
(C)   ask the children to mend their ways
(D)   allow students the freedom to come up with what they want and gradually connect them to your plan
76.   The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching—
(A)   Studies problem of student behaviour
(B)    Compares different types of tests
(C)   Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(D)   Cannot deal with children effectively
77.   Find the odd one out—
(A)   Recall
(B)    Recognition
(C)   Trace
(D)   Remembering
78.   Motivation should be followed by—
(A)   Reward
(B)    Reproof
(C)   Knowledge of result
(D)   Incentive
79.   Learning which involves motor organ is called—
(A)   Sensory learning
(B)    Motor learning
(C)   Verbal learning
(D)   Sensory motor learning
80.   Which of the following is an audio-visual aid ?
(A)   Radio
(B)    Tape-recorder
(C)   Television
(D)   Projector
81.   Do  the  children  of  intelligent parents always shine in studies ?
(A)   Yes
(B)    No
(C)   Psychology
(D)   It depends on God
82.   Children’s fantasy reflects their—
(A)   Love for imagination
(B)    Inherent talent
(C)   Age-specific traits
(D)   Hidden frustrations
83.   I prefer teaching young children because—
(A)   I love playing with them
(B)    It is easy to manage them
(C)   It does not take extra read-ing on my part
(D)   This is the best time to develop values and skills
84.   Today’s parents exert a lot of pressure  for  achievement  on their children as—
(A)   they want to fulfil their dreams through their children
(B)    they are scared about their children’s future
(C)   the world is getting compe-titive everyday
(D)   social status is gained only through good grades
85.   An effective teacher—
(A)   can manage his/her class well
(B)    knows his/her subject very well
(C)   cares for his/her students
(D)   helps his/her students to be authentic learners
86.   One learns best in a classroom where—
(A)   every child gets a chance to explore
(B)    the teacher does not give punishment
(C)   there is no fixed curriculum
(D)   there  is  no,  threat  of examination
87.   The school and community should work together as—
(A)   the school is an integral part of the community
(B)    the  community   provides resources for learning
(C)   the community helps in understanding the diverse nature of the students
(D)   children learn to cooperate with one another
88.   Hyperactive children—
(A)   need special attention in the classroom
(B)    need a separate classroom
(C)   need special teachers
(D)   need a special curriculum
89.   A child’s potential for creativity is reflected in his/her—
(A)   classroom discussion
(B)    achievement scores
(C)   out-of-the box thinking
(D)   drawing and painting
90.   Teaching is also a learning activity for teachers as—
(A)   it develops an in depth understanding of a discipline
(B)    teachers need to do action research
(C)   teachers learn a lot from their students
(D)   teaching is a process, not a product
Part–IV
Comprehension Test
(For English Medium Students only)
Directions—(Q. 91–96) Indicate the correct option for the following—
91.   A moral tale, with animals as characters—
(A)   legend
(B)    myth
(C)   fable
(D)   None of the above
92.   Bringing about a gentle death in case of incurable and painful diseases—
(A)   immoculation
(B)    euthanasier
(C)   respite
(D)   restitude
93.   Wreath  of  bay  leaves  as  an emblem of victory—
(A)   lark               (B)  laurel
(C)   laureate       (D)  palm
94.   Attentive     to     formality     or etiquette—
(A)   punctilio
(B)    punctilious
(C)   punctual
(D)   attention giver
95.   The point that you have raised has no bearing on the subject under discussion—
(A)   no relation to
(B)    not affected by
(C)   no impact on
(D)   no dependance on
96.   Some people feel that commu-nism is on its last leg now—
(A)   about to revive
(B)    about to collapse
(C)   about to despair
(D)   None of the above
Directions—(Q. 97–106) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow—
Discrimination implies that there is a pref­erence for some or a preju-dice towards others. Wise teachers examine how to provide classroom systems that treat students equally.
In doing so, they may find that equal treatment results from unequal interpretations of rules. The expecta-tion for all children to stay in their seats and not wander around the room may be an unfair expectation for some. In getting to know students well, teachers can come to know what instructional contexts are tolerable, possible and desirable for various individuals. In knowing themselves well, teachers know what alterations in their own preferred style of teach-ing will be necessary to accommodate different children.
97.   Discrimination involves—
(A)   favouritism
(B)    preconceived opinion
(C)   partiality
(D)   All of the above
98.   “Equal treatment results from unequal interpretation of rules” means—
(A)   biased teachers can inter-pret rules in any way
(B)    only rules that involve safety can be unilateral
(C)   rules ought not to have singular inter­pretation
(D)   None of the above
99.   According to the passage, a teacher must—
(A)   Know his/her lessons well
(B)    Know himself/herself well
(C)   None of these
(D)   Both (A) and (B)
100.   “The expectation for all children to stay in their seats and not wander around the room may be an unfair practice for some” means—
(A)  it is expected that all children must stay in their seats
(B)   it is expected that all child-ren will wander in the classroom
(C)  the  expectation  that  all children  will  display  similar behaviour
(D)  None of the above
101.   According  to  the  passage, teachers need to be—
(A)  Considerate
(B)   Fair
(C)  Both (A) and (B)
(D)  None of the above
102.   The passage espouses that wise teachers—
(A)  check  the  veracity  of  the student’s statements
(B)   are  not  indifferent  to students
(C)  are tolerant of the student’s mischief
(D)  follow their favoured styles of teaching
103.   ‘Unequal’ refers to—
(A)  unfair            (B)  different
(C)  fair                (D)  unilateral
104.   ‘Alterations’ refers to—
(A)  choices
(B)   changes
(C)  options
(D)  None of the above
105.   The author wants the teaches to be—
(A)  wise and tolerant
(B)   accommodating and focus-sed
(C)  fair and unbiased
(D)  All of the above
106.   ‘Accommodate’ in the passage refers to—
(A)  reconcile        (B)  serve
(C)  harmonize    (D)  oblige
Directions—(Q. 107–116) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow—
Once,  the  word  man  meant ‘person’ or ‘human being’. It was like the Latin word ‘homo’, a member of the human species, not an adult male of  the  species.  But,  man  has, gradually, become more specific in meaning and is now a synonym for an adult male human being only. In the words of a popular dictionary for children, “A boy grows up to be a man. Father and Uncle George are both men”. This is the meaning that native speakers understand because they hear man used in everyday speech in this way, since childhood.
Later, we learn that man has another generic meaning, but we do not accept it with the same certainity. Studies of college students and school children show that phrases such as economic man and political man or statements such as ‘man domestica-ted animals’ and ‘man is a dreamer’ create an image of male people only, not female people or male and female people together.
To go on using, in its former sense, a word whose meaning has changed, is unfair. The point is not that we should recognise a semantic change, but that, in order to be precise, in order to be understood, we must. Furthermore, only recently, have we become aware that conven-tial English usage, including the generic  use  of  man and  other masculine gender words, often hides the actions, the contributions and, sometimes, the very presence of women. We can refuse to accept this view if we want, but if we do, it is like teaching children that the Earth is flat. Continuing to use English in ways that have become misleading, is no different from misusing infor-mation.
107.   The passage is about—
(A)  using  language  to  give correct information
(B)   recognising  that  language   is changing and use it appro-priately
(C)  linguistic confusion arising from the change
(D)  All of the above
108.   The word ‘man’ means—
(A)  person and adult male
(B)   only person
(C)  only adult male
(D)  None of the above
109.   To use ‘man’ as a generic term—
(A)  leads to unnecessary con-fusion
(B)   makes women seem less important
(C)  is misleading
(D)  All of the above
110.   To use the term ‘man’ as it stands now is essential—
(A)  as change in semantics must be recognised
(B)   in order to communicate with exactitude
(C)  Both (A) and (b)
(D)  None of the above
111.   According to the passage, school children and college students—
(A)  understand ‘man’ as mean-ing person, both man or woman
(B)   associate  ‘man’  with  only the masculine gender
(C)  understands that ‘man’ means both men and women
(D)  are confused as they cannot associate ‘man’ with masculine or feminine gender
112.   The word Semantic in paragraph 3 refers to—
(A)  gradual
(B)   contextual
(C)  contemporary
(D)  meaning
113.   ………….. is  like  teaching  the children that the ‘earth is flat’.
(A)  ignoring the confusion caused by the semantic change
(B)   not following the convential English usage
(C)  not recognising and adap-ting to the change in meaning
(D)  misusing information
114.   According to the writer, phrases such as ‘political man’ and ‘man as a dreamer’ are—
(A)  confusing
(B)   misleading
(C)  archaic
(D)  All of the above
115.   ‘Generic’ refers to—
(A)  characteristic of a class
(B)   general
(C)  characteristic of a genius
(D)  None of the above
116.   The writer advocates us to—
(A)  stop using masculine-gen-der words, if they also refer to women
(B)   use feminine gender words explicitly
(C)  adapt  to  the  changes  in meanings of words
(D)  avoid using ‘generic’ words
Directions—(Q. 117–120) Indi-cate the correct option that fits each blank.
117.   The breeze ……………the forest fire and made it more dangerous.
(A)  ignited          (B)  fanned
(C)  lit                  (D)  blew
118.   Illiteracy is a great …………….to development.
(A)  distraction
(B)   impediment
(C)  objection
(D)  problem
119.   The Prime Minister wanted to help …………… poverty.
(A)  dwindle        (B)  reduce
(C)  redress         (D)  diminish
120.   The more our thoughts and actions are allied and ……………, the happier we grow.
(A)  convergent
(B)   integrated
(C)  oscillated
(D)  dexterous
Answers With Hints
Part-I
Section ‘A’
1.  (C)     2. (A)    3. (C)    4. (D)    5. (D)
6.   (B)     7. (C)    8. (D)    9. (D)  10. (A)
11.  (D)   12. (B)  13. (B)  14. (B)  15. (D)
16.  (B)   17. (B)  18. (C)  19. (C) 20. (A)
21.  (A)   22. (B)  23. (B)  24. (B)   25. (B)
26.  (B)   27. (C)  28. (B)  29. (A)  30. (A)
31.  (D)   32. (B)  33. (C)  34. (B)  35. (D)
36.  (B)   37. (D)  38. (A)  39. (D)   40. (B)
Section ‘B’
1.   (D) The largest airport in the world is King Khalid Airport, Saudi Arabia with an stunning area as 780 km2, which is bigger than Bahrin.
2.   (B)     3. (C)    4. (A)    5. (B)    6. (A)
7.   (B)     8. (D)    9. (A)  10. (C)   11. (B)
12.  (D)   13. (C)  14. (B)  15. (C)  16. (A)
17.  (B)   18. (C)  19. (D) 20. (C)   21. (B)
22.  (A)   23. (B)  24. (C)  25. (A)  26. (A)
27.  (A)   28. (D)  29. (A)  30. (C)  31. (D)
32.  (D)   33. (A)  34. (C)  35. (C)   36. (B)
37.  (C)   38. (D)  39. (C)  40. (C)
Part-II
For Q. 41–44
41.  (D)   42. (B)  43. (D)  44. (C)
For Q. 45–47
45.  (C)   46. (A)  47. (D)
48.   (A)ABACDA/AAACDA/ ABAA DA/ABAAC A
49.   (B)
50.   (C) As,                     Similarly,
A D K N
W Z N Q
A D O R
R U W Z
E H L O
N Q E H
E H D G
S V G J
S V E H
51.   (D)
\ Finally she is 10 m west to her starting position.
52.   (A)   Rotation   =   ¥ 255
=   1530 degrees
53.   (A)
7 – x + x + 8 – x + 3   =   15
x =   3
54.   (B) No. of odd days in 217 = 0
\ Reqd. day will be Tuesday.
55.   (D) In all rest, second term is the square of Ist term third term is cube of Ist and fourth term 4th power of Ist term.
56.   (A)
∆DEF @ ∆ADF @ ∆BDE @ ∆CEF
\ ∆ DEF = of the given ∆ ABC
57.   (B)
58.   (A) From top to bottom C, D, A, B, E.
59.  (A)   60. (D)  61. (C)  62. (B)  63. (A)
64.   (D) As ‘book’ is used to ‘read’ similarly ‘pen’ is need to ‘write’.
65.   (B) ‘Water’ is used to ‘wet’ a thing similarly ‘air’ is use to dry a thing.
66.  (B)   67. (D)  68. (D)  69. (B)   70. (B)
Part-III
71.  (C)   72. (B)  73. (B)  74. (D)  75. (D)
76.  (A)   77. (D)  78. (A)  79. (B)  80. (C)
81.  (B)   82. (C)  83. (D)  84. (C)  85. (C)
86.  (A)   87. (A)  88. (A)  89. (C)  90. (D)
Part-IV
91.  (C)   92. (B)  93. (B)  94. (B)  95. (A)
96.  (B)
97.   (D) As the opening paragraph states that discrimination implies preference for some i.e., favou-ritism; or prejudice i.e., preconc­eived opinion and partiality.
198.   (C) The  second   paragraph implies that equal treatment to all students requires unequal interpretation  of  rules  for different  children  or  different interpretation  of  rules  for different children.
199.   (D) In getting to know their students  well,  the  teachers should have the knowledge of instructional   contexts   i.e., knowledge of lessons and for knowing themselves well, the teachers should know the effect of changing their style of teaching.
100.   (C) Since   all   children   are inherently different from one another, so expecting them to display similar behaviour is not unfair practice.
101.   (C) According to the passage, the teacher need to be both considerate and fair to treat students equally.
102.   (B) Both option (A) and (C) are nowhere  mentioned  in  the passage (D) is also contrary to the passage, as passage states that teachers should change their  own  preferred  style  of teaching   to   accommodate different children.
103.   (B) For   different   children ‘unequal inter­preta­tion of rules’ means different interpretation for different children.
104.   (B) ‘Alterations’ means changes in the preferred style of teach-ing.
105.   (D) The  author   wants   the teacher to have all these quali-ties.
106.   (C) ‘Accommodate’     different children  implies  ‘harmonize’ different children.
107.   (C)
108.   (C) Third sentence of the first paragraph  states  that  man …………… is now a synonym for an adult male.
109.   (D) As a generic term ‘man’ meant person or human being but now it is a synonym for adult male human being only so all the options are correct.
110.   (A) The term ‘man’ as it stands now is essential because change in semantics must be recog-nised in order to be precise and to be understood.
111.   (B) Studies of college students and school children………. create an image of male people only.
112. (C) Semantic change as used in paragraph 3 refers to contem-porary change in language.
113.   (C) Third paragraph states that we may refuse to accept …………. Earth is flat.
114.   (D) Second paragraph says that phrases such as ‘political man’ and ‘man as a dreamer’ create an image of male people only.
115.   (B) ‘Generic’ as used in the last paragraph means general.
116.   (C) The writer advocates us to adapt to the changes in the use of the words.
117.   (B) ‘Fanned’ means to inflame or provoke.
118.   (B) ‘Impediment’         means ‘obstacle’ ‘hurdle or hindrance.’
119.   (B) ‘Reduce’ is more appropriate in comparison to diminish as it means to help lessen.
120.   (B) ‘Integrated’ goes well with allied, thoughts and action can not be dexterous, oscillated is grammatically  incorrect  and ‘convergent’ is contextually in appropriate.
Descriptive Test
Q. 1. Education is the progres-sive search of our own ignorance.
Ans. The  word  ‘Shiksha’ is originated from the Sanskrit term Shiksh, which has the meaning—‘to learn’. If we trace the equivalent term in English, it is called Education. The term education is also derived from Latin language. The derived word is ‘Educare’ which has the meaning of ‘to rear’ or ‘to develop’. While we think on the basic nature of these two terms, it is clear that they have the similarity as both of the words agreed upon the ‘process’ where a man on a child has gone under the continuous mechanism of learning which reflects that the person is going through the slate of continuous development. Thus the etymological meanings in both languages communicate us that education is a continuous process which takes place due to surprise mixed with ignorance, curiosity, feel-ings of anxiety etc. In turn all these constraints make us more and more sensitive to make better adjustments towards our own environment or extending learning mechanisms of coping for facing challenges of the universe. It is very clear, the first man on earth found it difficult for his survival and gradually he learnt the art of his survival on this planet by exploring food, water, and shelter for fulfilling his basic needs. This evolu-tionary process all of us are quite aware from the story of prehistoric man on earth. It is not only the story of survival of this unique species on earth but how he has overcome his ignorance merged with mysteries and faced the challenges and calamities of the nature. Only after the victory over this existential challenges, now he has established as the highly intelligent creature on earth who has the acumen to explore the planet for fighting his survival in a scientific manner.
Q. 2. The teacher is a gate keeper and you yourself take entry into it.
Ans. Generally  when   people make  meaning  from  the  term ‘Shiksha’, They give emphasis upon receiving of the knowledge. Some-times they overlap the meanings we get by the phrases ‘imparting of education’ and ‘imparting of know-ledge’. But it is misleading phrases because ‘education’ is treated as a process and the knowledge is the simple product of this process. A few person relate it further with acquiring of the skills. But in true sense educa-tion  for  the  sake  of  knowledge acquisition  is  not  true  education untill and unless it is not following some values, ideals and norms of the society. Dr. Sarvpalli Radha Krishnan has mentioned in his book New Frontiers in East-West Philosophies of Education as.
“Education is not limited to the imparting of information or the training in skills. It has to give the educated a proper sense of values. Scientists and technologists are also citizens and so have a social respon-sibility to the community in which they live”. The modern education is treated as paedo-centric education. This education keeps child in central position and make all educational amenities in order to open the flood gates of educational experiences for children. This  education  emphasis is
on the liberty, freedom, potentialities and interests of the blooming children. The teacher, thus works only as a stage-setter, environment modulator, resource manager and remains in background. Such education nouri-shes the democratic principles to prompt democratic discipline in next generation. Acharya Vinoba Bhave one’s spoke on the issue as—“Teacher is just like a sentry who is there to open the gate of knowledge and explore on furnish the opportunities for students so that they can do experimentation and verification with it”.
Q. 3. Now-a-days the evaluation of examination should be conducted by different approach.
Ans. The   evaluation   system always remain a point of hot discus-sion in educational area. The educa-tional evaluation system is always remain an issue of severe criticism for its reliability, validity and credibility in general public. It can be sum-marised that the examination system of modern India itself stands to face the challenges about its account-ability and credibility. The major fault of this dilemma of evaluation system is also lying with its nature because the education is also treated as means as well as an our. It has polluted the whole system of examination and its evaluation.
Although a number of efforts had been carried out from time to time to negotiate these pitfalls in evaluation system and still the pro-cess of improvements and precision is going on. Recently UGC has instruc-ted all the Higher Education Insti-tutions to follow semester system at all levels and implement grading system  to  neutralize  the  humane errors and biases in it. The other major efforts which are worth men-tioning are here as under—
1. Exceed the number of External Examinations.
2. Implementation of Internal Continuous  Evaluation  System  of Examinations.
3. Implementation of Semester System of Examination.
4. Implementation of Question Banks Based Examination System.
5. Follow the scaling and grading system of evaluation.
6. Implement criterion reference examination.
7. Applications of  systems approach.
8. Application of computers in examination and evaluation.
All these practices of evaluation work as modern techniques of exami-nation and imple­mented by various boards of examinations and higher education institutions. Still to make an  uniformity  of  examination/ evaluation system throughout the country, there is need of positive consensus based on research findings. Inspite of these efforts computer based evaluation has opened new possibilities in this field.

Tuesday, March 13, 2012

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs

1. Oman Investment Fund (OIF), the Sultanate of Oman’s sovereign wealth fund, filed application with the government to buy a stake in which of the software solutions company, IT People promoted exchange?
a. Universal Commodity Exchange
b. Agri bourse  NCDEX
c. Intercontinental Exchange
d. National Spot Exchange Limited
Answer: (a)


2. Which company on 27 Deember 2011 mentioned that it would acquire the remaining 51 per cent stake from BP Alternative Energy Holdings in the joint venture that it formed with BP?
a. Reliance Power
b. Tata Power
c. Adani Power Limited
d. ABB Ltd
Answer: (b)


3. Which paharmaceutical company announced in December 2011 the launch of Supamovecream used for treating pain and inflammation in India?
a. Cipla
b. Ranbaxy
c. Dr. Reddy’s
d. Sun Pharmaceuticals
Answer: (c)


4. Name the state-run Mumbai-headquartered bank which on 29 December 2011 surprised the market by cutting its base rate, the minimum lending rate, by 10 basis points, thereby becoming the first banker this year to do so when others are waiting for a signal from the central bank.
a. State Bank of India
b. Union Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Allahabad Bank
Answer: (b)


5. The $35-billion Aditya Birla group plans to set up a viscose staple fibre (VSF) plant in the Adana Organised Industrial Zone in which of the following countries?
a. Tunisia
b. Tanzania
c. Turkey
d. Tibet
Answer: (c)



6.    Reserve Bank of India deregulated non-resident external (NRE) deposits on 16 December 2011 allowing banks  to offer higher interest rates to dollar-denominated accounts. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are not true?
2.    Reserve Bank freed the rates on non-resident external accounts, offering interest as high as 9.6% per annum
3.    Following RBI’s deregulation five Indian banks, including HDFC Bank and Yes Bank on 23 December 2011 raised their interest rates on such deposits in order to lure foreign money
4.    Private lender Yes Bank increased the interest rates on fixed deposits held by non-resident Indians (NRIs) to 8.4 per cent from 3.82 per cent
5.    The new rates are effective from 24 December for fresh deposits as well as those being renewed on maturity.
a.    1 & 2
b.    Only4
c.    Only 3
d.    1 & 4
Answer: (c)

7.
According to the RBI data, India's foreign exchange reserves fell by what amount to $302.1 billion during the week ended 16 December  2011 on account of a fall in foreign currency assets?
a.    $4.67 billion
b.    $3.33 billion
c.    $5 billion
d.    $5.75 billion
Answer: (a)

8. According to the Tea Board data released in December 2011, tea imports declined by what per cent to 9.91 million kg in the April-October period of 2011?
a.    10%
b.    12.5%
c.    14%
d.    15.3%
Answer: (c)

9. Infrastructure sector recorded a growth of what per cent in Novemberr 2011 after touching five-year low of 0.3% in October 2011 due to an impressive growth in cement, electricity and refinery products?
a.    2.3%
b.    3.9%
c.    4.6%
d.    6.8%
Answer: (d)

10.    Telecom Commission, the decision-making body of the Department of Telecommunications recommended a uniform licence fee of what per cent of adjusted gross revenues (AGR) as against the prevalent rate of 6-8 per cent?
a.    10%
b.    8%
c.    5.2%
d.    9.3%
Answer: (b)



11.    Theatre director, screenplay writer and actor Satyadev Dubey, credited with introducing existential and absurd theatre, passed away on 25 December 2011. Which facts about the concerned person is/are not true?
2.    he got attracted to the post-1947 theatre and joined Theatre Unit, the theatre group-cum-school founded by Ebrahim Alkazi
3.    Dubey came into prominence with Dharamvir Bharati’s radio-play Andha Yug that brought to the fore the pervasive criminal and homicidal tendencies during the times of war.
4.    He penned screenplays/dialogue of some acclaimed films in the 1970s, including Shyam Benegal's Nishant, Ankur, Kalyug and Bhumika
5.    He won the Filmfare Award for Best Dialogue in 1980 for the film Ankur
a.    Only 1
b.    Only4
c.    2 & 3
d.    Only 2
Answer: (b)

12. Identify the veteran politician and former Chief Minister of Karnataka with the help of the following clues.
1.    He was the Chief Minister of Karnataka from 1990-92 and died on 26 December 2011
2.    The three time Lok Sabha member represented Bellary constituency
3.    He was on the national political stage as a Lok Sabha member for three terms in 1996, 1999 and 2003.
4.    He was instrumental in holding the first Indian international film festival in Bengaluru in 1993
a.    H. D. Kumaraswamy
b.    J. H. Patel
c.    S. M. Krishna
d.    S.Bangarappa
Answer: (d)

13. India’s infant mortality rate (IMR) showed a 3 point decline, dropping to what number per 1,000 live births, as per government data released on 28 December 2011?
a.    43
b.    55
c.    47
d.    50
Answer: (c)

14.  Maharashtra government planned to provide free medicare for poor families. Consider the following statements:
i) The plan will benefit 50 lakh families.
ii) The plan will cover eight districts in state.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer:  (a) Both i and ii are correct

15.  Lok Sabha on 27 December 2011 passed the Lokpal and Lokayukta bill, 2011. Consider the following statements:
i) The setting up of Lokayuktas by the states would not be mandatory.
ii) The constitutional amendment bill fell through.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct



16.    Name the Mumbai skipper who on 22 December 2011 overtook former teammate as the highest run-getter in Ranji Trophy by scoring a total of 8242 runs.
a.    Wasim Jaffer
b.    Amol Muzumdar
c.    Amarjeet Kaypee
d.    Pankaj Dharmani
Answer: (a)
17.    Who won his first Men’s Singles title of 2011 at the 2011 $120,000 Syed Modi India Open Grand Prix Gold badminton championship?
a.    Sourabh Verma
b.    Taufik Hidayat
c.    Anup Sridhar
d.    Hendra Setiawan
Answer: (b)

18.    Which team won both the men's & women’s title in the 10th All-India Invitational volleyball tournament for the Vajpayee Cup?
a.    Andhra Pradesh
b.    Punjab
c.    Kerala
d.    Southern Railway
Answer: (c)

19.   
Identify the Indian footballer with the help of the following clues.
1.    This Indian football team defender announced his retirement from international football on 26 December 2011
2.    He captained the Indian team in one match (against Malaysia) in November 2011
3.    He had scored one goal against Bhutan in SAFF Cup in 2005
4.    He was part of the Indian teams which won SAFF Cup (2005), Nehru Cup (2007 and 2009), AFC Challenge Cup (2008) apart from the recent SAFF championship
a.    Arnab Mondal
b.    Gurwinder Singh
c.    Anas Edathodika
d.    Mahesh Gawli
Answer: (d)

20.    The Indian team finished at the fourth position in the World Women's Team Chess Championship at Mardin,Turkey on 27 December 2011. Which team won gold and emerged at the top in the competition?
a.    Ukraine
b.    Russia
c.    China
d.    Greece
Answer: (c)



21.  Name the Cyclone, which hit the coast of Chennai and south-eastern coastal areas.
a) Thane
b) Nargis
c) Rita
d) Katrina
Answer:  (a) Thane

22.  Name the gene, which controls memory in human brain.
a) Npas4
b) Npas3
c) Mpas4
d) Npas2
Answer:  (a) Npas4

23.  WGEEP designated entire Western Ghats as an ecologically sensitive area. What is the full form of WGEEP?
a) Western Ghats expert panel
b) Western Ghats environmental panel
c) Western Ghats environmental expert panel
d) Western Ghats ecology expert panel
Answer: (d) Western Ghats ecology expert panel

24.
China launched a High-Speed Bullet Train in Quingdao, Shandong.   Consider the following statements:
i)  Its speed can reach up to 500 kilometres per hour.
ii) The train was launched by China’s largest rail vehicle maker, CSR Corp. Ltd.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct

25.
Scientists discovered a Way to Transform Ordinary Tissue into Heart Muscle Cells.   Consider the following statements:
i) It could pave the way for new therapeutic approaches for making a damaged heart to repair itself.
ii) Scientists used a zebrafish system to develop a small and robust molecule, which can transform stem cells into beating heart muscle cells.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only  i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer:  (a) Both i and ii are correct



26.     People’s national party  recently won Parliamentary elections in Jamaica. What is the capital of Jamaica?
a)    New Delhi
b)    Kingston
c)    Paris
d)    London
Answer:  (b)  Kingston

27.  India and Pakistan concluded their sixth round of talks in__ on 27 December 2011.
a) Islamabad
b) New Delhi
c) London
d) Paris
Answer:  (a) Islamabad

28. 
USA and Saudi Arabia inked an agreement worth__ US dollars.
a) 29.4 billion
b) 20 billion
c) 25 billion
d) 23 billion
Answer:  (a)  29.4 billion US dollars
29.  India approved the acquisition of French advanced missile systems to arm the Mirage-2000 fighter jets. Consider the following statements:
i)  The cabinet committee on Security cleared the contract for the fire and forget MICA with French company MBDA.
ii) MICA are interception and aerial combat missiles.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer:  (a) Both i and ii are correct

30. 
The Union government approved Katra-Quazigund Railway line project. The project is located in__.
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Bihar
c) Punjab
d) Haryana
Answer:  (a) Jammu and Kashmir

31. 
India became free from bird flu,__.
a) H5N1
b) H4N1
c) H5N2
d) H3N3
Answer: (a) H5N1



32.    Which PSU announced on 2 January 2012 that its board approved in a meeting held on 30 December 2011 the switching over to internationally-accepted Gross Caloric Value-based pricing mechanism?
a.    BHEL
b.    ISPAT
c.    CIL
d.    IOC
Answer: (c)

33.    Mukesh Ambani’s Reliance Industries Ltd (RIL) entered the media and entertainment sector by making a major investment in one of India’s largest broadcast companies. Name the broadcast company.
a.    Network18 Group
b.    Adlabs Films
c.    Balaji Telefilms
d.    Bag Films
Answer: (a)

34.   Credit Suisse upgraded which company to neutral from underperform, citing valuation comfort at current?
a.    Essar Energy
b.    Reliance Power
c.    Bajaj Auto
d.    Tata Steel
Answer: (d)
35.    Which PSU lender called off its plans to set up a joint venture with Visa Inc and Elavon Inc to enter the merchant acquiring business over differences on sharing technology?
a.    Union Bank
b.    State Bank of India
c.    Syndicate Bank
d.    Corp Bank
Answer: (b)

36.    This company acquired Star more than 500 films like blockbusters like Salman Khan's Dabangg, Ready, Golmaal 3, Tees Maar Khan, Thank You, No One Killed Jessica, Guzaarish, Kites and Raavan from a general entertainment channel owned by the Viacom 18 Group?
a.    Sony
b.    UTV movies
c.    Colors
d.    Sab TV
Answer: (c)



37.    Union government raised the ad valorem duty (export duty) on iron ore exports to what per cent from 20 per cent?
a.    30%
b.    33%
c.    41%
d.    43%
Answer: (a)

38.    As per the to Commerce Ministry data released on 2 January 2012, India’s exports recorded their slowest pace of growth in two years in November 2011. What was the per centage of growth recorded?
a.    4.2%
b.    3.8%
c.    2.2%
d.    0.94%
Answer: (b)

39.    Union government on 3 January 2012 approved Reliance Industries' (RIL) investment plan for developing four satellite fields in the flagging KG-D6 block. What was the proposed sum to be invested for developing the satellites?
a.    $1.500 billion
b.    $1.692 billion
c.    $1.529 billion
d.    $1.375 billion
Answer: (c)
40.    The capital market regulator SEBI on 3 January 2012 allowed auctioning of securities through stock exchanges and introduced a new method for institutional placement of stocks. Which of the following facts related to the above statement is/are not true?
1.    Under the institutional placement programme (IPP), shares can be sold only to qualified institutional buyers.
2.    There shall be at least 25 allottees in every IPP issuance. No single investor shall receive allotment for more than 25% of the offer size
3.    The IPP method can be used to increase public holding by 10% and could be offered to only qualified institutional buyers with 25% being reserved for mutual funds and insurance companies
4.    Under the IPP, companies will have to announce the ratio of buy-back, as is done in the case of rights issues and fix a record date for determination of entitlements as per shareholding on record date
a.    Only 1
b.    Only 3
c.    Only 2
d.    Only 4
Answer: (c)

41.   
What is the Finace Ministry’s decision on the rates applicable on small savings instruments schemes that would be announced on April 1 each year?
a.    rate would remain valid till the maturity of the scheme
b.    rate would change in the first qurter of that respective year
c.    rates would change depending on different maturity period
d.    rates would remainvalid for six months post the maturity
Answer: (a)



42.  Scientists for the first time produced mixed embryo monkeys. Consider the following statements:
i) Scientists produced monkeys composed of cells taken from separate embryos.
ii) The cells stay together and work together to form tissues and organs.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only  i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer:  (a) Both i and ii are correct

43.  Scientists discovered unknown species off the coast of Antarctica. Consider the following statements: i) The temperature in this region rises to 380 degree Celsius. Ii) There is plenty of light in this region.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
a)    Only i
b)    Only ii
c)    Both i and ii
d)    Neither i nor ii
Answer:  (a)  Only i; There is complete absence of light in this region

44.  The world’s first hybrid sharks was discovered by the researchers in Australian waters. The hybrid shark is the result of cross-breeding between which one of the following set of shark species?
a) Common black tip Shark and Australian black-tip shark
b) Indian black-tip Shark and Australian black-tip Shark
c) Blue Whale and Common black-tip Shark
d) Blue Whale and Australian black-tip Shark
Answer:  (a) Common black-tip Shark and Australian black-tip Shark

45.  Scientists produced artificial human semen to help infertile men.  Consider the following statements: i) The scientists grew the sperm by enveloping the germ cells in a special compound called agar jelly. ii) The artificial human semen could help infertile men father their own children.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer: (a)  Both i and ii are correct
46.  Health Authorities in Australia recently detected Deadly Disease, Murray Valley Encephalitis.  The disease is caused by the__.
a) Flies
b) Mosquitoes
c) Birds
d) Dogs
Answer: (a) Mosquitoes


47.    Kiro Gligorov, the former president of Macedonia died in Skopje on 1 January 2012. Which facts about Gligorov given below are not true?
2.    Gligorov was the first democratically elected president of Macedonia.
3.    He joined the partisan movement fighting against the Nazi occupation and was one of the organizers of the Anti-Fascist Assembly for the People’s Liberation of Macedonia, or ASNOM in 1945
4.    Gligorov served four consecutive presidential terms, leading the nation from January 1991 to November 2009
5.    The early days his presidency were overshadowed by a bitter dispute with Greece over the newly independent nation’s name , the dispute that continues till date
a.    Only 1
b.    1 & 2
c.    Only 3
d.    2 & 4
Answer: (c)
48. Who was presented the Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation on 4 January 2011, the fourth day of the ten-day Kalachakra initiations?
a.    Tibetan spiritual leader, the Dalai Lama
b.    South African leader Nelson Mandela
c.    Tanzania’s Julius Nyerere
d.    Burmese pro-democracy leader Aung San Suu Kyi
Answer: (c)

49. European Union agreed in principle to ban import of Iranian Crude oil. Consider the following statements:
i) The European Union( EU) is one of Iran’s biggest markets for oil.
ii) The EU is a political and economical union of 27 member states.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct
50. The Israel-Palestine talks, in the first week of January 2012 was held in Amman. Amman is the capital of__
a) Jordan
b) Syria
c) Iraq
d) Iran
Answer: (a) Jordan
51. Maldives on 4 January 2012 lifted ban on Spas in the upmarket tourist destination. Consider the following statements:
i) The tourism industry is an important foreign exchange earner in the Maldives.
ii) Maldives in 2011 received more than 850000 tourists.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer: (a) Both i and ii are correct



56.  India signed MoU( Memorandum of Understanding) on tourism with ASEAN on 12 January 2012. The agreement took place in__.
a) Manado
b) Jakarta
c) Malaysia
d) Manila
Answer: (a) Manado

57. Pravasi Bhartiya Divas-2012 was held in Jaipur. Jaipur is the capital of which one of the following states?
a) Rajasthan
b) Bihar
c) UP
d) Bihar
Answer: (a) Rajasthan
58.  India and Japan on 12 January 2012 agreed to enhance their cooperation in the ___sector.
a) Infrastructure
b) Tourism
c) Road and Transport
d) Coal and Mining
Answer: (a) Infrastructure
59. Newly crowned Miss Belgium 2012, Laura Beyne mentioned that she mostly supports gay marriages. In which year did Belgium become the second country after the Netherlands to legalize gay marriage?
a.    2000
b.    2003
c.    2005
d.    2009
Answer: (b)
60. TiE Chennai (The Indus Entrepreneurs), dedicated to promote entrepreneurship in January 2012 launched a book Dream to destiny — the driving spirit of Chennai's entrepreneurs in January 2012. TiE Chennai is a _.
a.    Non-profit organisation
b.    Committee of Entrepreneurs
c.    Multinational organisation
d.    Entrepreneur arm of the Commerce Ministry
Answer: (a)



61.    State-run Northern Coalfields (NCL) agreed to surrender land required to mine two blocks attached to the Sasan ultra mega power plant to which of the following companies giving the comapany the benefit of over Rs 6000 crore over the life of the venture?
a.    Reliance Power
b.    Adani Power
c.    Birla Power Solutions
d.    DLF Power
Answer: (a)
62.    Which car took home the crown of Indian Car Of The Year 2012 in January 2012?
a.    Toyota Etios Liva
b.    Maruti Suzuki Swift
c.    Hyundai Verna
d.    Hyundai Eon
Answer: (b)

63. B. D. Park was appointed the President and CEO of this electronic major’s South West Asia Operations and Managing Director of its India operations. Which electronic major is in question here?
a. Phillips
b. Videocon
c. Samsung
d. LG
Answer: (c)

64.   
Maldives authorities allowed Male International Airport operator to collect airport development and insurance charges from passengers, nearly a month after a local court barred the Bangalore-based company from doing so. Name the operator.
a.    GMR Infrastructure
b.    International Air Transport Association (IATA)
c.    Fraport AG
d.    DIAL
Answer: (a)

65.    Which French construction major entered the Indian market by buying out 100 per cent stake in NAPC, a Chennai-based construction company?
a.    Sinopec Engineering
b.    Uhde
c.    Vinci
d.    Snamprogetti
Answer: (c)



66.    According to the draft sports policy of this state Government released on 11 January 2012, a special life-time achievement award, in memory of G.V. Raja, the founder-president of the State Sports Council  is to be instituted. Which State is being referred to?
a.    Karnataka
b.    Kerala
c.    Tamil Nadu
d.    Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (b)
67.    Which team defeated Uttarakhand 25-22, 25-22, 25-13 in the men’s category to win the National title for the fourth time, in the 60th senior National volleyball championship, at the Balbir Juneja Indoor Stadium, Raipur on 11 January 2012?
a.    Kerala
b.    Andhra Pradesh
c.    West Bengal
d.    Tamil nadu
Answer: (a)

68.    Which team extended their hegemony by defeating Kerala 25-12, 25-14, 25-16 in a one-sided final in the women’s category at the 60th senior National volleyball championship?
a.    Punjab
b.    Services
c.    Railways
d.    Delhi
Answer: (c)

69.    This footballer was awarded the 2011 FIFA Ballon d'Or on 9 january 2012 in Zurich. He won the award for the third consecutive year for the world's outstanding footballer. Identify the footballer.
a.    Cristiano Ronaldo
b.    Xavi
c.    Sergio Ramos
d.    Lionel Messi
Answer: (d)



70.    Foreign direct investment (FDI) into India went up by what per cent to $2.53 billion in November 2011, indicating an improvement in investor sentiment?
a.    56%
b.    49%
c.    33%
d.    26%
Answer: (a)

71.    As per the Forward Markets Commission data released on 9 January 2012 that the turnover of the 21 commodity exchanges in India increased by 66% to what amount till December 2011?
a.    Rs 123 lakh crore
b.    Rs 137.22 lakh crore
c.    Rs  100.57 lakh crore
d.    Rs 93 lakh crore
Answer: (b)
72.    Indirect tax collections increased by what per cent to Rs 285787 crore during April-December 2011 driven by an increase in service tax mop-up?
a.    15%
b.    14.56%
c.    16.1%
d.    16.33%
Answer: (c)

73.    The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) notified that the Commerce Ministry on on 11 January 2012 lowered the minimum export price of onions by $100 a tonne to boost exports. What is the changed minimum export price of onion?
a.    $200 a tonne
b.    $250 a tonne
c.    $300 a tonne
d.    $150 a tonne
Answer: (d)

74.    Prime Minister's Office on 11 January 2012 directed cash-rich public sector undertakings (PSUs) to invest around Rs.1.76 lakh crore to act as a stimulus in the next fiscal 2012-13. What is the amount to be invested domestically?
a.    Rs.1.41 lakh crore
b.    Rs 1.57 lakh crore
c.    Rs 2.50 lakh crore
d.    Rs 3.19 lakh crore
Answer: (a)



75.    He was conferred with the first S K Singh Award for excellence in the Indian Foreign Service on 6 January 2012. Identify the diplomat.
a.    Ranjan Mathai
b.    Shivshankar Menon
c.    D Bala Venkatesh Verma
d.    K. Raghunath
Answer: (c)

76.    Which Ministry prepared draft policy seeking to increase private participation and opens the doors for foreign direct investors for expanding its network?
a.    Railways Ministry
b.    Ministry of Rural Development
c.    Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d.    Defence Ministry
Answer: (a)
77.    Six researchers from five science streams were honoured with this prize by the former President, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam in Bangalore on 9 January 2012. Name the prize in question.
a.    Infosys Prize
b.    India Science Prize
c.    Rolls-Royce Science Prize
d.    Young Scientist Award
Answer: (a)
78.  Which one of the following state governments launched Panch Parmeshwar scheme?
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) UP
d) Kerala
Answer:  (a) Madhya Pradesh
79.  The Cabinet Committee on Security approved the setting up of NCTC. What is the full form of NCTC?
a)  National Counter Terrorism Centre
b) National Trade Cooperation
c) National Central Terrorism Centre
d) National Council for Trade Cooperation
Answer:  (a) National Counter Terrorism Centre



80.    Which of the following companies infused Rs 520 crore equity into BSES Delhi distribution companies as part of Rs 5,100 crore financial package being worked by IDBI
a.    NTPC
b.    RIL
c.    Adani Power Ltd
d.    Birla Group
Answer: (b)

81. Suzlon Energy signed a memorandum of understanding with this State Government as a part of the CII's Partnership Summit that concluded on 13 January 2012. As per the MoU, Suzlon Energy will develop wind power projects totalling 3,000 MW in Andhra Pradesh over the next four years, involving potential investment of up to Rs.18,000 crore. Name the state government with which the MoU was signed.
a.    Andhra Pradesh government
b.    Gujarat governemnt
c.    Orissa government
d.    Arunachal Pradesh government
Answer: (a)

82.   
Name the auto making company which launched three new variants of the Eon-D — Lite plus, Era plus and Magna plus in the Indian market in January 2012.
a.    Tata Motors
b.    Hyundai Motor India
c.    Volkswagen
d.    Maruti Suzuki
Answer: (b)
83.    The Government of which of the following countries acquired 1.09 per cent stake, currently worth about Rs.2500 crore, in Mukesh Ambani-led Reliance Industries Ltd. (RIL), the company's latest shareholding data show?
a.    Malaysia
b.    Japan
c.    Phillipines
d.    Singapore
Answer: (d)
84.    Which Photography Pioneer filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy protection on 19 January 2012 making it likely for the 132-year-old trailblazer to become the most storied casualty of a digital age?
a.    Eastman Kodak Company
b.    Fuji
c.    Nikon
d.    Canon
Answer: (a)

85.    Which company retained its top position in Interbrand's list of the top 100 global brands in 2011?
a.    Apple
b.    Coca cola
c.    Microsoft
d.    Google
Answer: (b)



86.    As per the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data, industrial production bounced back with a growth of what per cent in November 2011, marking a five-month high in a reversal from the negative trend witnessed in October 2011?
a.    5.9%
b.    6.5%
c.    7%
d.    8.2%
Answer: (a)

87.    India on 13 January 2012 extended for how many years an anti-dumping duty on import of four Chinese products like nylon filament yarn, Saccharin, cellophane transparent film etc?
a.    3 years
b.    5 years
c.    10 years
d.    12 years
Answer: (b)

88.    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 13 January 2012 issued guidelines on compensation of wholetime directors, chief executive officers and other risk takers in private and foreign banks. Which of the following facts regarding the above statement is/are not true.
1.    The central bank’s directions are aimed at preventing greed from destabilising the institution.
2.    The guiderlines include provisions to clawback pay if transactions fail years after origination
3.    The norms  provided also include capping the variable component of the compensation at 48% of the fixed pay in a year
4.    As per the guidelines issued, banks are permitted to exclude the Employees Stock Option Plan from variable pay
a.    Only 2
b.    Only 4
c.    Only 3
d.    2 & 4
Answer: (c)

89.    Which of the following bodies unveiled rules for direct investment in stocks by foreign investors, including individuals to put curbs on opaque structures to prevent routing of funds by resident Indians?
a.    IRDA
b.    FICCI
c.    CCI
d.    SEBI
Answer: (d)
90.    As per the Wholesale Price Index, published by the government on 16 January 2012, Reduced food prices caused the inflation to dip to a year low at what per cent in  December 2011?
a.    7.47%
b.    7.65%
c.    6.33%
d.    5.41%
Answer: (a)



91.  Scientists identified a new gene in maize plants called__.
a) Meg1
b) Meg2
c) Meg3
d) Meg4
Answer:  (a) Meg1

92. 
Researchers discovered new earthworm species in Port Blair. What is the name of the new species?
a) Moniligaster ivaniosi
b) Annelida
c) Nematoda
d) Onychophora
Answer:  (a): Moniligaster ivaniosi

93.  Scientists recently developed a new wireless device to detect the presence of termites. Consider the following statements: i) when the new device detects the presence of termites, it sends an SMS or email to a pest control firm. ii) The device is made of a tiny sensor, even smaller than a fingernail.
Choose the right option:
a)    Both i and ii are correct.
b)    Only i is correct.
c)    Only ii is correct.
d)    Neither i nor ii is correct.
Answer:  (a): Both i and ii are correct

94.  The scientists claimed that the Meteorite, which fell in Morocco in July 2011, was from Mars. The event happened for the first time in__ years.
a) 50
b) 100
c) 200
d) 150
Answer:  (a) 50
95.  Scientists found the Extinct Monkey, the Miller’s Grizzled Langur in the forests of___.
a) Indonesia
b) Malaysia
c) India
d) Africa
Answer:  (a) Indonesia



96.  10th PBD( Pravasi Bhartiya Divas) was held at which one of the following Indian cities?
a) Jaipur
b) Patna
c) New Delhi
d) Chennai
Answer:  (a) Chennai

97.  Planning Commission of India on 18 January 2012 approved Rudrasagar development scheme. The scheme is related__.
a) Tripura
b) Assam
c) Manipur
d) Sikkim
Answer:  (a) Tripura

98. Writer/diplomat Pavan K. Varma's new book set in contemporary India and in the Himalayan kingdom of Bhutan, was launched in the New Delhi by Ashi Dorji Wangmo Wangchuck, the Queen Mother of Bhutan in January 2012. The protagonist Anand is wrongly diagnosed with cancer. He quits his high-power job and loses himself in a Bhutanese retreat.
Name the book.
a.    When Loss is Gain
b.    Ghalib: The Man
c.    The Great Indian Middle Class
d.    The Times
Answer: (a)
99. Identify the photographer with the help of the following clues.
1.    She was India’s first woman photo-journalist and was the only professional woman photojournalist between 1939 and 1970
2.    She was commonly known by her pseudonym Dalda 13
3.    She also captured the first flag-hoisting ceremony at the Red Fort on August 16 1947, the departure of Lord Mountbatten from India and the funerals of Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru and Lal Bahadur Shastri.
4.    The Padma Bhushan Awardee breathed her last on 15 January 2012.
a.    Ronika Kandhari
b.    Asha Kochar
c.    Prabuddha Dasgupta
d.    Homai Vyarawala
Answer: (d)

100.   
Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 11 January 2012 launched the signature tune of the Indian Customs Pragati ki Dhadkan in New Delhi.  The signature tune was composed by which of the noted music directors?
a.    A. R. Rahman    
b.    Aadesh Shrivastava    
c.    Adnan Sami
d.    Shankar-Ehsaan-Loy
Answer: (b)



101.  Prime Minister of Trinidad & Tobago visited India from 5 January 2012 to 14 January 2012. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of Trinidad & Tobago?
a) Kamla Persad Bissessar
b) Hosni Mubarak
c) Manmohan Singh
d) Naresh Goyal
Answer:  (a) Kamla Persad Bissessar
102.  The fifth edition of the World Future Energy summit began in__.
a) Abu Dhabi
b) New Delhi
c) Tehran
d) Dhaka
Answer:  (a) Abu Dhabi
103. Memogate scandal is related to which one of the following countries?
a) Pakistan
b) Sri Lanka
c) China
d) India
Answer: (a) Pakistan
104. Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan and International Asociation of Sanskrit Studies jointly organised the 15th World Sanskrit conference from 5 to 10 January 2012 at Vigyan Bhavan in New Delhi. Where was the 14th World Sanskrit conference held?
a.    Kyoto, Japan
b.    Beijing, China
c.    Colombo, Sri Lanka
d.    Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
Answer: (a)

105.
Identify this politicial with the help of the following clues.
1.    Leader of the Sandinista movement which overthrew the US-backed Somoza dictatorship in 1979
2.    After the Nicaraguan Revolution resulted in the overthrow and exile of the Somoza's government in 1979, he became a member of the ruling multipartisan Junta of National Reconstruction. 
3.    He was elected as the 83rd Nicaraguan president in 2006. He had previously served as the 79th President, between 1985 and 1990.
4.    He made alliances with fellow Latin American socialists and signed Nicaragua up to the Bolivarian Alliance for the Americas.
a.    Enrique Bolaños
b.    Arnoldo Alemán
c.    Daniel Ortega
d.    Hugo Chávez
Answer: (c)



106.    The Bangalore-based pharmaceutical major, Strides Arcolab, sold its 94 per cent stake in Ascent Pharmahealth, a subsidiary with operations in Australia and Southeast Asia, to which of the following U.S.-based pharma companies?
a.    Watson Pharmaceuticals
b.    Abbott Laboratories
c.    Pfizer
d.    Derma Sciences
Answer: (a)
107.    The Board of Approval (BoA) under the Commerce Ministry on 24 January 2012 approved the proposal of this company to set up a special economic zone (SEZ) at Indore in Madhya Pradesh. Identify the company.
a.    Reliance Industries
b.    Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
c.    Hero Motors
d.    Infosys
Answer: (b)

108.   
Which private life insurance company from India on 25 January 2012 launched its first international operations with the opening of its representative office in Dubai?
a.    Kotak Insurance
b.    New India Insurance
c.    HDFC Life
d.    Religare Insurnce
Answer: (c)
109.    Name the world’s largest biotechnology company, agreed to buy Micromet in a $1.16 billion deal to gain an experimental leukemia drug.
a.    Celgene Drug
b.    B B Biotech
c.    Dechert
d.    Amgen
Answer: (d)

110.    Which channel developed a 52-week special India: Wild Encounters to focuss on India's enchanting wildlife s well as take viewers on an exploration spree ?
a.    Discovery India
b.    Animal Planet
c.    Sony
d.    National Gepgraphy
Answer: (b)



111.    Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE) estimated Corporate India’s sales to grow by what per cent in 2011-12?
a.    21.6%
b.    20.8%
c.    22
d.    23.7%
Answer: (a)

112.   
According to the report  by Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) released in January 2012, gems and jewellery exports fell into the negative zone to $3 billion in December 2011. What per cent fall did it register in the month in question?
a.    10.33%
b.    12.17%
c.    13.33%
d.    15%
Answer: (d)

113.    Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 24 January 2012 cut the cash reserve ratio (CRR) by 50 basis point. The current CRR stands at what percent?
a.    5%
b.    5.5%
c.    6%
d.    6.5%
Answer: (b)

114.   
The Reserve Bank of India on 24 January 2012 also kept the repo rate unchanged for the second consecutive time after raising it 13 times between March 2010 and October 2011. What is the present repo rate?
a.    8%
b.    7.5%
c.    8.5%
d.    9%
Answer: (c)

115.    The poor performance of National Pension System, or NPS led the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) to change the incentive structure for the distributors. Which of the following statements in this regard is/are not true?
1.    The pension regulator on the basis of the recommendation of the G.N. Bajpai committee constituted by PFRDA to review NPS,  fixed the incentive at 0.25% of the subscription amount
2.    As per PFRDA’s measures announceds, a distributor will get a flat Rs 50 on initial subscription and 0.05% of the initial subscription amount
3.    Every year on subsequent investments, the point of presence will be entitled to 0.25% of that amount.
4.    The minimum that a point of presence can charge is Rs 20 and the maximum Rs 25000.
a.    Only 1
b.    Only 2
c.    Only 3
d.    Only 4
Answer: (b)



116.    FIPB headed by Economic Affairs Secretary R Gopalan had in a meeting held on 5 August 2011 cleared how many FDI proposals of a total worth of Rs 3844.7 crore?
a.    31
b.    12
c.    18
d.    23
Answer: (a)

117.   
According to the public debt management report released by the finance ministry on 17 August 2011, by what percentage did the Centre's debt rise in the first quarter (April to June) of the current fiscal 2011-12?
a.    5.5%
b.    6%
c.    6.7%
d.    8.1%
Answer: (b)

118.    According to a report from CRISIL Research, how many additional jobs does India need to create by 2015 to maintain the current ratio of employed people to total population at 39 per cent?
a.    40 million
b.    47 million
c.    55 million
d.    57 million
Answer: (c)

119.    Headline inflation eased to its eight-month low to what percentage in July from 9.44 per cent in the previous month?
a.    8.20%
b.    9.22%
c.    7.36%
d.    8 %
Answer: (b)

120.    Which regulatory body on 16 August 2011 suggested that the Centre and the State governments should come out with a regulatory framework for the realty sector to protect consumers from unfair trade practices?
a.    IRDA
b.    SEBI
c.    FICCI
d.    CCI
Answer: (d)

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Recruitment 2011-12

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Solved GK Paper of Preliminary Examination for Trained Graduate Teachers
held on 12th Feb. 2011


1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    a) Kalinga Award          -     Popularization of Science
    b) Barlong Award          -     Agriculture
    c) David-Cohen Award   -     Literature
    d)
Pulitzer Prize         -     Progress in Religion     


2. Which of the following characters was not a part of Shakespearian plays?
    a) Julius
    b) Brutus
    c)
Potter
    d) Ariel

  3. Which of the following international organizations is dedicated to the cause of wildlife
    conservation?
    a) UNFPA
    b)
UNDP
     c) UNESCO
    d) WHO


  4. Human Rights Day is observed on :
    a) 10 October
    b) 9 May

    c) 10 December
    d) 18 February


  5. Railway coaches are made in the largest number at Integral coach factory, situated in:
    a) Kapurthala

    b) Perambur
    c) Varanasi
    d) Moradabad


  6. Which of the following is not a necessary qualification for a state to become a member
    of United Nationas Organization? It should :
    a) be a sovereign state

    b) be a peace loving state
    c)
be a willing to discharge responsibilities under the UNO charter
    d) guarantee human rights and freedom to its citizens

  7. The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follows 180o meridian, is called :
    a)
International date time
    b) Tropic of Cancer
    c) Equator
    d) Prime Meridian


  8. ‘Loti’ is the currency of :
    a) Burundi
    b) Libya
    c) Sudan
    d)
Lesotho

  9. Which type of rocks are mainly found in the Himalayan ranges?
    a) Sedimentary
    b)
Metamorphic
    c) Igneous
    d) Granite


  10. Water Lily is the national emblem of :
     a) Denmark
     b)
Bangladesh
     c) Italy
     d) Luxemberg


  11. Who is a famous ‘Sarangi’ player?
     a) Vilayat Khan
     b) Ustad Zakir Husian
     c) Alauddin Khan
     d)
Ustad Binda Khan

  12. Which of the following is not a dance/dance-drama associated with the state ‘Maharashtra’?:
     a) Lezim
     b) Lavani
     c)
Kathi
     d) Dahi Kala

  13. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I.  Simon Commission                                   1. 1885
      II. Quit India Movement                                  2. 1942
      III. Formation of Indian National Congress        3. 1927
      IV.Minto-Morley Reforms                               4. 1909


      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   3     2       1        4
           b)   1     3       4        2
           c)   4     3       2        1
           d)   1     2       3        4



14.Commonwealth games in 2014 will be held in :
     a) Edinburgh, Scotland

     b) Ontario, Canada
     c)
Glasgow, Scotland
     d) Abuja, Nigeria


  15. United Kingdom’s Prime Minister since May, 2010 is :
    a) Tony Blair
    b)
David Cameron
    c) Gordon Brown
    d) Edward Health


  16. Which of the following two IIT’s started functioning in 2009?
     a) Gandhinagar, Jodhpur
     b) Ropar, Patna

     c) Indore, Mandi
     d) Bhubaneshwar, Hyderabad

  17. Banking of cureves is done to provide :
     a)
Centripetal force
     b) Centrifugal force
     c) Centrifugal acceleration
     d) Angular velocity


  18. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I.   Calomel                   1. Copper sulphate
      II.  Blue vitriol                2. Calcium sulphate
      III. Gypsum                   3. Mercurous chloride
      IV. Normal salt              4. Sodium chloride


      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   1     2       3        4
           b)   4     3       2        1
           c)   3     2       1        4
           d)  
3     1       2        4


19. Which of the following have maximum calrofic value?
     a) Carbohydrates
     b)
Fats
     c) Protiens
     d) Vitamins


  20. How many Fundamental Rights are there now guaranteed under the Constitution of India?
     a)
6
     b) 7

     c) 8
     d) 9


  21. The reduction of voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as
      Assemblies is in :
     a)
Sixty-First Amendment 1989
     b)
Seventy-Third Amendment 1992
     c)
Sixty-Fourth Amendment 1990
     d)
Fifty-Ninth Amendment 1988

  22. Jute is mainly grown in :
     a) Tamil Nadu
     b)
West Bengal
     c) Kerala
     d) Himachal Pardesh


  23. Delhi became the capital of India in :
     a) 1910
     b)
1911
     c) 1916
     d) 1923


  24. Who amonst the following is the author of the book ‘My Country My Life’?
     a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
     b) Atal Behari Vajpayee
     c)
L.K.Advani
     d) Shashi Tharoor


  25. One-rupee currency notes bear the signature of :
     a) The President of India
     b) Prime Minister of India
     c) Governor of Reserve bank
     d)
Indian Finance Secretary

  26. Which of the following country won the FIFA World Cup, 2010?
     a) Germany
     b) South Africa
     c) Brazil
     d)
Spain

  27. Who among the following is Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
     a) President

     b) Vice President
     c) Prime Minister

     d) Home Minister

  28. B.C. Roy Award is given in the field of :
     a) Journalism
     b)
Medicine
     c) Music
     d) Environment


  29. Who among the following has been declared as Businessman of the decade?
     a) Mukesh Ambani
     b) Anil Amabani
     c)
Ratan Tata
     d) Azim Premji


  30. Who amongst the following has been named UNESCO’s National Ambassador?
     a) Aishwarya Rai
     b)
Priyanka Chopra
     c) Sharmila Tagore
     d) Kajol


  31. People have eyes of different colours, e.g. brown, black or blue, depending upon
      the particular Pigment present in the :
     a)
Iris
     b) Corena

     c) Pupil
     d) Choroid


  32. Which of the following is known as the ‘red planet’ ?
     a) Mercury
     b)
Mars
     c) Jupiter

     d) Saturn

  33. The special Constitution position of Jammu & Kashmir is that :
     a) It is not one of the States of the Indian Union
     b) It is beyond the purview of the Indian Constituion
     c) Indian laws do not apply to it

     d) It has its own Constitution 


34. The fundamental right which has been described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ” The heart
     and soul of the Constitution” is the right to :
     a) Equlaity
     b) Property
     c) Freedom of religion 

     d) Constituional remedies

  35. Fourth Estate is referred to :
     a) Public Opinion
     b) Chamber of Commerce
     c)
The Newspaper
     d) Political Parties