Tuesday, March 13, 2012

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Recruitment 2011-12

https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgUQC11Nvfipuulalo45m6k13TPc7Z6ibxX5NGS4ipkj76OFkvQ75cgtD6Y1wRQ3iPh3Aj6VPB6BZ75nhSWSH9iJ-OYG2lW70TKexf0TBPJKSUurA6T0pDD1GVshmVrCx7QIK4HlnM75YmA/s320/KVS+Logo.jpg

Solved GK Paper of Preliminary Examination for Trained Graduate Teachers
held on 12th Feb. 2011


1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    a) Kalinga Award          -     Popularization of Science
    b) Barlong Award          -     Agriculture
    c) David-Cohen Award   -     Literature
    d)
Pulitzer Prize         -     Progress in Religion     


2. Which of the following characters was not a part of Shakespearian plays?
    a) Julius
    b) Brutus
    c)
Potter
    d) Ariel

  3. Which of the following international organizations is dedicated to the cause of wildlife
    conservation?
    a) UNFPA
    b)
UNDP
     c) UNESCO
    d) WHO


  4. Human Rights Day is observed on :
    a) 10 October
    b) 9 May

    c) 10 December
    d) 18 February


  5. Railway coaches are made in the largest number at Integral coach factory, situated in:
    a) Kapurthala

    b) Perambur
    c) Varanasi
    d) Moradabad


  6. Which of the following is not a necessary qualification for a state to become a member
    of United Nationas Organization? It should :
    a) be a sovereign state

    b) be a peace loving state
    c)
be a willing to discharge responsibilities under the UNO charter
    d) guarantee human rights and freedom to its citizens

  7. The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follows 180o meridian, is called :
    a)
International date time
    b) Tropic of Cancer
    c) Equator
    d) Prime Meridian


  8. ‘Loti’ is the currency of :
    a) Burundi
    b) Libya
    c) Sudan
    d)
Lesotho

  9. Which type of rocks are mainly found in the Himalayan ranges?
    a) Sedimentary
    b)
Metamorphic
    c) Igneous
    d) Granite


  10. Water Lily is the national emblem of :
     a) Denmark
     b)
Bangladesh
     c) Italy
     d) Luxemberg


  11. Who is a famous ‘Sarangi’ player?
     a) Vilayat Khan
     b) Ustad Zakir Husian
     c) Alauddin Khan
     d)
Ustad Binda Khan

  12. Which of the following is not a dance/dance-drama associated with the state ‘Maharashtra’?:
     a) Lezim
     b) Lavani
     c)
Kathi
     d) Dahi Kala

  13. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I.  Simon Commission                                   1. 1885
      II. Quit India Movement                                  2. 1942
      III. Formation of Indian National Congress        3. 1927
      IV.Minto-Morley Reforms                               4. 1909


      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   3     2       1        4
           b)   1     3       4        2
           c)   4     3       2        1
           d)   1     2       3        4



14.Commonwealth games in 2014 will be held in :
     a) Edinburgh, Scotland

     b) Ontario, Canada
     c)
Glasgow, Scotland
     d) Abuja, Nigeria


  15. United Kingdom’s Prime Minister since May, 2010 is :
    a) Tony Blair
    b)
David Cameron
    c) Gordon Brown
    d) Edward Health


  16. Which of the following two IIT’s started functioning in 2009?
     a) Gandhinagar, Jodhpur
     b) Ropar, Patna

     c) Indore, Mandi
     d) Bhubaneshwar, Hyderabad

  17. Banking of cureves is done to provide :
     a)
Centripetal force
     b) Centrifugal force
     c) Centrifugal acceleration
     d) Angular velocity


  18. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
      I.   Calomel                   1. Copper sulphate
      II.  Blue vitriol                2. Calcium sulphate
      III. Gypsum                   3. Mercurous chloride
      IV. Normal salt              4. Sodium chloride


      Codes :
                 I      II       III       IV
           a)   1     2       3        4
           b)   4     3       2        1
           c)   3     2       1        4
           d)  
3     1       2        4


19. Which of the following have maximum calrofic value?
     a) Carbohydrates
     b)
Fats
     c) Protiens
     d) Vitamins


  20. How many Fundamental Rights are there now guaranteed under the Constitution of India?
     a)
6
     b) 7

     c) 8
     d) 9


  21. The reduction of voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as
      Assemblies is in :
     a)
Sixty-First Amendment 1989
     b)
Seventy-Third Amendment 1992
     c)
Sixty-Fourth Amendment 1990
     d)
Fifty-Ninth Amendment 1988

  22. Jute is mainly grown in :
     a) Tamil Nadu
     b)
West Bengal
     c) Kerala
     d) Himachal Pardesh


  23. Delhi became the capital of India in :
     a) 1910
     b)
1911
     c) 1916
     d) 1923


  24. Who amonst the following is the author of the book ‘My Country My Life’?
     a) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
     b) Atal Behari Vajpayee
     c)
L.K.Advani
     d) Shashi Tharoor


  25. One-rupee currency notes bear the signature of :
     a) The President of India
     b) Prime Minister of India
     c) Governor of Reserve bank
     d)
Indian Finance Secretary

  26. Which of the following country won the FIFA World Cup, 2010?
     a) Germany
     b) South Africa
     c) Brazil
     d)
Spain

  27. Who among the following is Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
     a) President

     b) Vice President
     c) Prime Minister

     d) Home Minister

  28. B.C. Roy Award is given in the field of :
     a) Journalism
     b)
Medicine
     c) Music
     d) Environment


  29. Who among the following has been declared as Businessman of the decade?
     a) Mukesh Ambani
     b) Anil Amabani
     c)
Ratan Tata
     d) Azim Premji


  30. Who amongst the following has been named UNESCO’s National Ambassador?
     a) Aishwarya Rai
     b)
Priyanka Chopra
     c) Sharmila Tagore
     d) Kajol


  31. People have eyes of different colours, e.g. brown, black or blue, depending upon
      the particular Pigment present in the :
     a)
Iris
     b) Corena

     c) Pupil
     d) Choroid


  32. Which of the following is known as the ‘red planet’ ?
     a) Mercury
     b)
Mars
     c) Jupiter

     d) Saturn

  33. The special Constitution position of Jammu & Kashmir is that :
     a) It is not one of the States of the Indian Union
     b) It is beyond the purview of the Indian Constituion
     c) Indian laws do not apply to it

     d) It has its own Constitution 


34. The fundamental right which has been described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ” The heart
     and soul of the Constitution” is the right to :
     a) Equlaity
     b) Property
     c) Freedom of religion 

     d) Constituional remedies

  35. Fourth Estate is referred to :
     a) Public Opinion
     b) Chamber of Commerce
     c)
The Newspaper
     d) Political Parties

Friday, March 9, 2012

LAWCET/PGLCET - 2012

59th National Film Awards

The Complete list of awards is as follows:

Best feature film: Shared by Deool (Marathi) and Byari(Kannada)
Best Actor: Girish Kulkarni for ‘Deool’
Best Actress: Vidya Balan for 'The Dirty Picture'
Best film critic: Manoj P Pujari
Best Children's Film: Chillar Party
Best Hindi Film: 'I AM' directed by Onir
Special Jury Award: Anjan Dutta
Best Book Award: Anirudha Bhattacharjee and Balaji Vittal for the title
'R.D. Burman The Man, The Music.'
Best Music Direction: Neel Dutt for Ranjana Ami Ar Ashbona
Best Background Score: Mayookh Bhaumik for Bengali film Laptop
Best Lyrics: Amitabh Bhattacharya for 'I AM'
Best Female Playback Singer: Rupa Ganguly
Best Male Playback Singer: Anand Bhate for 'Bal Gandharva'
Best Costume: Neeta Lulla for ‘Bal Gandharva’ (Marathi) and Niharika
Khan for 'The Dirty Picture' (Hindi)
Best Choreography: Bosco and Ceaser for 'Zindagi Naa Milegi Doobara'
Best Special Effects: 'RA.One'
Best Editing: Praveen KL for 'Aaranya Kaandam'
Best Marathi Film: 'Shala'
Best Bengali Film: 'Ranjana Ami Aar Ashbo Na' directed by Anjan Dutta
Best Dogri Film: Dille Ch Vasya Koi
Best Kannada Film: Kurmavatara
Best Manipuri film: Phijigee Mani
Best Punjabi Film: Anhe Ghorey Da Daan
Best Tamil Film: Vaagai Sooda Va
Best Non Feature Film: And We Play On
Best Debut Film of a Director: The Silent Poet (Manipuri)
Best film on Social Issues: Mindscapes...of Love and Longing shared with Inshallah, Football (Kashmiri, Urdu and English)
Best Film On Family Values: Red Building Where the Sun Sets (English)
Best Screenplay: Vikas Behl and Nitish Tiwari for 'Chillar Party'
Best Adapted screenplay writer: Avinash Deshpande
Best Dialogue: Girish Kulkarni
Best Child Artist: Partho Gupte for 'Stanley ka Dabba' and the Chillar Party Group
Indira Gandhi award for debut film director: Thiagarajan Kumararaja for 'Aaranya Kaandam'
Special Mention: Director Shari for 'Adi Madhyantam' (Malayalam Film) and Mallika for 'Byari' (Kannada Film)

Thursday, March 8, 2012

ED.CET – 2012 for admission to B.Ed. Course in colleges of education in A.P

Applications are invited from the eligible candidates for Education Common Entrance Test (ED.CET – 2012) conducted by Andhra University, Visakhapatnam for the admission into B.Ed. regular course in colleges of education in A.P for the Academic Year 2012 – 2013.

Eligibility:
  • Candidates should have passed B.A. / B.Sc. / B.Com. / B.Sc. (Home Science) / B.C.A. / B.B.M. examination from any University in A.P or a recognized University out side A.P.
  • Candidates who are appearing for final degree examinations of 2012 are also eligible to appear for the entrance examination.
  • Candidates with at least 50% marks either in the Bachelor’s Degree or in the Master’s Degree or any other qualification equivalent thereto, are eligible for admission to the Program. However the candidates belonging to all other reserved categories should have secured 40% marks in the qualifying examination.
  • The qualifying mark in the entrance test is 37 out of total marks 150 (i.e., 25%). For the candidates belonging to SC / ST there will be no qualifying marks for ranking.
  • The candidates should have completed 19 years of age on 01/07/2012.
How to Apply:
Prescribed printed application form along with OMR cum ICR application form and information booklet can be had across the counters from all the Head Post Offices and the University Post Offices in the State of A.P.

Filled-in application forms should be submitted along with relevant documents to The Convener, Ed.CET-2012, Examination Block (Ground Floor), A.U College of Engineering (A), Andhra University, Visakhapatnam- 530 003, A.P., either in person or by Speed/Registered Post only on or before 5.00 P.M, 23.04.2012.

Applications also can be submitted online. Application forms are downloaded along with two passport size photographs and D.D. for Rs. 150/- drawn from any Nationalized Bank in favor of “The Secretary, APSCHE, payable at Hyderabad, must be sent to the Convener, Ed.CET-2012, Examination Block (Ground Floor), A.U College of Engineering (A), Andhra University, Visakhapatnam- 530 003 on or before 5.00 P.M, 23.04.2012.

The application forms can also be had from designated main Branches of AXIS Bank outlets in A.P. for details of Branches visit Websites www.edcet2012.infowww.andhrauniversity.info, andwww.apsche.org.

Important Dates:
  • Commencement of Sale of Application Forms: 09/03/2012
  • Last Date for Submission of Application Forms: 23/04/2012 up to 5:00 pm
  • Date & Time of ED.CET – 2012 Examination: 08/06/2012 (Friday) from 11:00 am to 1:00 pm
For more details click here

Sunday, March 4, 2012

Indian Constitution Study Material

Idea for a Constituent Assembly for drafting a con­stitution for India was first provided by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1895.

The elections for the  first Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. Ini­tially it had 389 members, but later the reformed Assembly had 324 members.

The State of Hydrabad did not participate in elections to the Constituent Assembly.

The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946— its president was Dr Sacchi­danand Sinha.

The second meeting was held on December 11, 1946. Its president was Dr Rajendra Prasad.

The Objectives Reso­lution was passed under chairmanship of J.L. Nehru.

The Draft of Indian Constitution was presented in October 1947. President of the Drafting Committee was Bhim Rao Ambedkar.

The Flag Committee worked under J.B. Kripalani.

The total time con­sumed to prepare the draft was 2 years, 11 months, 18 days. Total 11 meetings were held for this.

The Indian Constitu­tion was enacted on Novem­ber 26, 1946 and put into force on January 26, 1950.

The Constitution today has 444 Articles and 12 schedules. Originally there were 395 Articles and 8 schedules.

SOCIALIST, SECU­LAR, INTEGRITY—these words were added to the Preamble later, through the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

The Preamble con­tains aims and objectives of our Constitution.

Fundament Rights are contained in Part III— called “Magna Carta” of the Constitution. The idea was borrowed from USA. Initial­ly there were 7 fundamental rights, now there are only 6. (The Right to Property was deleted by the 44th amend­ment in 1978. It is now a judicial right—it has been moved to Article 300(A).)

The Supreme Court judgement in Keshwanand Bharti vs Kerala case provid­ed that Fundamental Rights can be altered by the Parlia­ment as long as the basic structure of the Constitution remains intact.

The Minerva Mills case ruling of the Supreme Court, however, ruled that Fundamental rights are basic part of the Constitution. The power to alter them was snatched away.

Fundamental Right of Equality provides for:
—Equality in govern­ment jobs (Article 16).
—No discriminations (Article 15).
—No untouchability (Article 17).
—Abolition of titles (Article 18).

The important free­doms granted are:
 —Against exploitation (Article 23).
—Against child labour (Article 24).

The Right to Consti­tutional Remedies is provid­ed under Article 32.

The Constitution provides that High Courts and the Supreme Court can issue various writs (written orders) to safeguard free­dom of an individual. There are five types of writs:
Habeas Corpus—“may I have the body”—it orders to present reasons as well as physical presence of a body in court, within 24 hours of arrest.
Mandamus—issued to person, office or court—to enforce duties—also called “Param Aadesh”.
Prohibition—issued to inferior courts, by superior courts—it prohibits (stops) action of acts outside their jurisdiction.
Quo Warranto—it asks how one has gained unau­thorised office.
Certiorari —Higher Court takes over case from lower courts.

Dr Ambedkar has called this article as “soul” of the Constitution.

Directive Principles of State Policy act as guide­lines or morals for the gov­ernment. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitu­tion. They were borrowed from Ireland. Some impor­tant directive principles are:
—Gram Panchayats (Article 40).
—Uniform civil code (Article 44).
—Free and compulsory education (Article 45).

Fundamental duties are contained in part IV(A). There are ten fundamental duties listed in the Constitu­tion. This idea was borrowed from Russia.

The Vice President is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. However, he is not a member of any House.

If a member is found sitting in another House of Parliament, of which he is not a member, he has to pay a fine of Rs 5000.

Rajya Sabha has 250 members—238 elected and 12 nominated by the Presi­dent. Uttar Pradesh elects maximum number of mem­bers for the Rajya Sabha (34), followed by Bihar (22) and Maharashtra (19).

In one year time, the President must hold at least two meetings of the Rajya Sabha.

If a state of Emer­gency is declared, the Lok Sabha is dissolved, but not the Rajya Sabha (It is a per­manent House).

Lok Sabha has 547 members—545 elected and 2 nominated from the Anglo-Indian Community.

During a state of emergency, the tenure of Lok Sabha can be extended by a maximum of one year.

Maximum number of members of Lok Sabha are elected from Uttar Pradesh (80 members), followed by Bihar (54) and Maharashtra (48).

Minimum age for becoming member of Lok Sabha is 25 years and Rajya Sabha is 30 years.

Minimum age to be eligible for the post of the President is 35 years.

The President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.

The Vice President is elected by all members of the Parliament.

To discuss an impor­tant topic, the normal proce­dure of the Parliament is stopped under the Adjourn­ment motion.

Decision about whe­ther a Bill is a Money Bill or not is taken by the Lok Sabha Speaker.
The first High Courts in India were estab­lished at Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras, in 1862. Alla­habad and Delhi were estab­lished next in 1866.

Maximum age to remain a High Court judge is 62 years and maximum age to remain a Supreme Court judge is 65 years.

The process for removal of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is same as that of judges of the Supreme Court.

Attorney General is the law expert to govern­ment. He can participate and speak in both Houses of Par­liament, but is not allowed to vote.

The idea of having a Lokpal to check corruption at the highest level has been borrowed from “Ombuds­man” of Sweden. In the States, we have the Lok Ayuk­ta.

There are three types of Emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President. Emergency under Article 352—due to war or internal rebellion. (Implemented three times (1962, 71, 75).)
Emergency under Article 356—Constitutional prob­lems. (Implemented many times, in various States like J&K, Punjab, etc.)
Emergency under Article 360—Financial Emergency. (Not implemented so far).

The Constitution ini­tially recognised 14 National Languages. Later, four more were added. These were: Sindhi (21st amendment), Nepali, Konkani and Manipuri (71st amendment).

To gain the status of a National Party, a political party must be recognised in four or more States, attaining at least 4% votes on national scale and 9% in each State.

The flag of the Con­gress party was accepted as the National Flag (with few changes) on July 22, 1947.

The new Flag Code of India gives freedom to individuals to hoist the flag on all days, but with due respect to the flag.

The Question hour in the Parliament is observed from 11 am  to 12 noon. The Zero hour is observed from 12:00 noon to 1:00 pm.

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested a three-tier structure for Pan­chayati Raj—Gram Pancha­yat village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level and Zila Parishad in districts.

First Constitutional Amendment—1951—put a ban on propagating ideas to harm friendly relations with foreign countries.

Planning Commis­sion is only an advisory and specialist body. Its chairman is the Prime Minister.
National Develop­ment Council is the main body concerned with the actual planning process. Its chairman is also the Prime Minister.

The first leader of the Opposition was Ram Subhag Singh, in 1969.

The shortest Lok Sabha span was 13 days (12th Lok Sabha in 1998).

Although the Parlia­ment can pass impeachment motion against judges, their conduct cannot be discussed by it.

There are at present 18 High Courts in India.

Article 370 gives special status to Jammu & Kashmir.

The Indian Consti­tution was the first of the preceding two centuries which was not imposed by an imperial power, but was made by the people them­selves, through representa­tives in a Constituent Assembly.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is not enforceable in a court of law. It states the objects which the Constitution seeks to establish.

The Indian Constitu­tion endows the Judiciary with power of declaring a law as unconstitutional if it is beyond the competence of the Legislature according to the distribution of powers provided by the Constitu­tion, or if it is in contraven­tion of the fundamental rights or of any other mandatory provision, e.g. Articles 286, 299, 301 and 304.

As part of the inte­gration of various Indian States into the Dominion of India a three-fold process of integration, known as the Patel Scheme, was imple­mented.
(i) 216 States were merged into the respective Provinces, geographically contiguous to them. These merged States were included in the territories of the States in Part B in the First Sche­dule of the Constitution. The process of merger started with the merger of Orissa and Chattisgarh States with the then province of Orissa, on January 1, 1948. The last instance was merger of Cooch-Behar with West Ben­gal in January 1950.
(ii) 61 States were con­verted into Centrally-admin­istered areas and included in Part C of the First Schedule.
(iii) The third form was consolidation of groups of States into new viable units, known as Union of States. The first Union formed was the Saurashtra Union on February 15, 1948. The last one was Union of Travan­core-Cochin on July 1, 1949. As many as 275 States were integrated into five Unions—Madhya Bharat, Patiala and East Punjab States Union, Rajasthan, Saurashtra and Travancore-Cochin. These were included in Part B of the First Sche­dule. Besides, Hyderabad, J&K and Mysore were also included in Part B.

At the time of acces­sion to the Dominion of India, the States had acceded only on three subjects (Defence, Foreign Affairs and Communications). Lat­er, revised Instruments of Accession were signed by which all States acceded in respect of all matters includ­ed in Union and Concurrent Lists, except only those relat­ing to taxation.

The process of inte­gration culminated in the Constitution (7th Amend­ment) Act, 1956, which abol­ished Part B States as a class and included all the States in Part A and B in one list.

KAKATIYA UNIVERSITY ADMISSION NOTIFICATION


Friday, March 2, 2012

Recruitment of 8500 Assistant (Clerk) vacancies in the State Bank of India


SBI Clerk Recruitment 2012 is that SBI had announced the 8500 Assistant Vacancies in the clerical cadre.This Advertisement in already a modification  in the ADVERTISEMENT NO. CRPD/CR/2011-12/05 Dated 27.12.2012

Here are some of the Details of 8500 Assistant vacancies in the State Bank of India.Candidates must read the Details below for applying Online for Assistant Vacancies in the SBI
Number of Vacancies:  8500 (Gen-3145, SC-2069, ST- 1337, OBC- 1949).The vacancies listed there also includes those vacancies that were advertised in the previous SBI Clerical Advt for SC/ST/OBC.
Pay scale: Rs 7200-400/3-8400-500/3-9900-600/4-12300-700/7-17200-1300/1-18500-800/1-19300.
Probation Period: 6 months.Probation period is the time period during which the performance of newly appointed Candidates will be evaluated.If the Performance of candidates is satisfactory after the Probation period then HE/SHE will be regularised there by ending his/her probation period.
Eligibility Criteria: Interested Candidates who wish to apply for 8500 Assistant vacancies in the SBI must posses the below mentioned eligibility criteria.
Age Limit (As on 01.12.2011): Min Age: 18 years and Max: 28 years.
Educational Qualifications (As on 01.12.2011): Candidates must posses the below mentioned educational Qualifications
Min 12th Std Pass with 60 % marks (For Gen Candidates)  and 55 % marks (For SC/ST/PWD candidates)
OR
A Graduate Degree in any discipline from a recognised University of India. (Percentage in Graduation Does not matter) 
Additional Qualifications: Apart from the academic qualification mentioned above candidates must also
  • Have the ability to write and speak English Language fluently.
  • Have the Knowledge of Local Language.
Application Fees: An application fee of Rs 350 (For Gen and OBC Candidates) and Rs 50 (For Others) will have to be deposited either by Online Mode Or By Offline mode in any Branch of State bank of India before the last date.
Procedure for Applying: Interested candidates who meet the above mentioned eligibility criteria can send their Applications Online by using the below mentioned procedure.
(I) Payment of Fees (Offline): Candidates who wish to apply with Offline Fee Payment method must fill their Online Application at www.statebankofindia.com. Candidates must carefully fill the Online Application form by following the On-Screen Instruction.After submitting the Online Application form, the system will generate a Fee Payment Challan.This Fee Payment must be printed and used for Payment of Application fee in the State bank of India.After the Payment of Application fees, the registration process is completed.
(II) Payment of Fees (Online): In this case, candidates are required to Submit their applications Online at the  www.statebankofindia.com. and deposit their Application fees Online by using VISA/Master Card/ Debit Card or Net Banking.After the Payment of Application fees the system will generate an e-receipt that must printed and preserved as a record.After Submitting the Online Application, the System will generate an Application form that must be printed and preserved till the final selection
Important Dates to Note:
Online Registration will start form : 5th March, 2012
Last date for Submitting the Online Applications: 26th March, 2012
Application Fees can be paid In Between: 7th March, 2012 to 31st March, 2012
Date of Written Exam:  27.05.2012 and 03.06.2012
Dates for Downloading the Call Letter:  After 12th May, 2012
Details: Candidates applying for the post of Assistants in State Bank of India must read the Detailed Advt, from the Link given below.

Recruitment of Assistants in Reserve Bank of India


Applications (App.) are invited for the post of Assistant in Reserve Bank of India (RBI/Bank) from Indian citizens, subjects of Nepal and subjects of Bhutan and persons of Indian origin who have migrated from Pakistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and East African countries or Kenya, Uganda and United Republic of Tanzania with the intention of permanently settling in India and in whose favour Eligibility Certificates have been issued by Government of India.

 Before applying, Candidates should ensure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria for the post. Candidates are requested to apply online through Bank’s website www.rbi.org.in

IMPORTANT DATES:


Website Link Open                                     01.03.2012 to 25.03.2012

Date of Written Test                                   29.04.2012

Payment of fees at Bank Branches            01.03.2012 to 27.03.2012

Name of the Post :  Assistants

Number of Posts : 1000 



ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA :
(a) Age (as on 01-03-2012):
Between 18 and 28 years candidates must have been born not earlier than 02/03/1984 and not later than 01/03/1994.

Educational Qualifications (as on 01-03 -2012):  
At least a Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline with a minimum of 50% marks (pass class for SC/ST/PWD candidates) in the aggregate and the knowledge of word processing on PC. A candidate belonging to Ex-servicemen category should either be a graduate from a recognized University or should have passed the matriculation or its equivalent examination of the Armed Forces and rendered at least 15 years of defence service.


Scheme of Selection: Selection will be through Written Examinations (‘WE’) and Interview. The ‘WE’ will be for 200 marks and is scheduled to be held on Sunday, April 29, 2012
  1. Written examination will be Objective type and consist of five Objective Type tests, viz. (i) Test of Reasoning (ii) Test of English Language (iii) Test of Numerical Ability (iv) Test of General Awareness and (v) Test of Computer Knowledge, each part carrying 40 marks. A candidate has to qualify in each part of the Objective test separately.
  2. Roll No. of the candidates successful in ‘WE’ will be available on the Bank’s website and a brief notice thereof will be published in leading newspapers in mid June 2012.
  3. Only such number of candidates will be called for interview who stand sufficiently high in merit on the aggregate marks of the Objective Tests, such merit being decided by the Bank in relation to the number of vacancies to be filled in.
  4. Final selection will be on the basis of candidate’s performance in the written examination and interview taken together in order of merit.


    HOW TO APPLY

    GUIDELINES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION :

    (Note- Candidates should have valid email ID. This will help him/her in getting call letter/ interview advices, etc. by e-mail)

    OPTION-I: PAYMENT OF FEE (OFFLINE PAYMENT):

    (i) Candidates should first scan their photograph and signature as detailed under guidelines for scanning the photograph and signature.

    (ii) Candidates to visit Bank's website www.rbi.org.in for filling the Online Application Form.

    (iii) Fill the application carefully. In the event of the candidate not able to fill the data in one go, he/she can save the data already entered. When the data is saved, registration number and password will be generated by the system and displayed on the screen. Candidates should note down the registration number and password. Email & SMS indicating the Registration number and Password will be sent. Candidates can reopen the saved data using Registration number and password and edit the particulars, if needed. This facility will be available for three times only. Once the application is filled complete, candidate should submit the data. Candidates should take a printout of the system generated fee payment challan immediately. No change/edit will be allowed thereafter. The registration at this stage is provisional.

    (iv) Fee Payment: Fee payment will be accepted from 2nd working day after registration and can be made within three working days at any branch of any one of the banks, viz. Bank of Baroda / Bank of India / Indian Overseas Bank / Central Bank of India / Punjab National Bank / United Bank of India. System generated fee payment challan will be used for depositing fee. (For example: If one has registered on 23.02.2012, then he/she will be able to deposit the fee from 25th to 28th February, 2012, considering 26th is a non- working day). Once fee paid, the registration process is completed.

    (v) Candidate will receive registration confirmation by SMS/e-mail after two working days from the date of payment of fees. Please ensure to furnish correct Mobile number / e-mail address to receive the registration confirmation.

    Note- - There is also a provision to reprint the submitted application containing fee details, after three days from the date of fee payment.

    OPTION-II: PAYMENT OF FEES: [ONLINE PAYMENT] :

    (I) FOLLOW STEPS (i) to (iii) GIVEN UNDER OPTION-I ABOVE. However, fee payment challan will not be generated and fee payment will have to made online through payment gateway available thereat.

    (II) After ensuring the correctness of the particulars of the application form candidates are required to pay fees through the payment gateway integrated with the application, following the instructions available on the screen. No change/edit will be allowed thereafter.

    (III) The payment can be made by using MASTER/VISA debit/ credit cards or Internet Banking by providing information as asked on the screen. Transaction charges for online payment will be borne by the candidates.

    (IV) On successful completion of the transaction, e-receipt and application form will be generated; Candidates can take a printout for their record.

    (V) If the online transaction has not been successfully completed, Candidates may register again. Candidates may then revisit Online Application link and fill in their application details again and make payment online.
    Note- - There is also a provision to reprint the eReceipt and Application form containing fee details, at later stage.
    7. GENERAL RULES/ INSTRUCTIONS :

    (I) Candidates need not submit /send at any address, application printouts or any certificates or copies thereof at the time of online application. Their candidature will be considered on the strength of the information declared in the application. If at any stage, it is found that any information furnished in the online application is false/ incorrect or if according to the Bank, the candidate does not satisfy the eligibility criteria, his/ her candidature/ appointment is liable to be cancelled/ terminated.

    (ii) All educational qualifications should have been obtained from recognised universities/ institutions in India or abroad. If grades are awarded instead of marks, candidates should clearly indicate its numerical equivalent.

    (iii) Candidates should satisfy themselves about their eligibility for the post applied for. The Bank would admit to the ‘WE’' all the candidates applying for this post with the requisite fee (wherever applicable) on the basis of the information furnished in the online application and shall determine their eligibility only at the final stage, i.e. Interview stage.

    (iv) The Bank shall not entertain requests from the candidates seeking advice about their eligibility to apply.

    (v) All registered candidates will be required to download the call letters from Bank’s website which will be made available at appropriate time but well before the ‘WE’ date. An intimation about the same will be sent by Email / SMS.

    (vi) Candidates will have to appear for the '‘WE’' at their own expense. However, those called for interview, will be reimbursed to and fro actual II AC railway fare by the shortest route from the place of their residence/place of work to the place of interview, whichever is nearer.

    (vii) In all correspondence with the Bank, Registration number received on submission of application and Roll no. indicated in 'AL' must be quoted.

    (viii) Candidates already in service of Govt./quasi-Govt. organisations and public sector banks /undertakings will have to produce a "no objection certificate" from their employer, at the time of interview. However, before appointment in RBI, a proper discharge certificate from the employer will have to be produced.

    (ix) Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification.

    (x) In all matters regarding eligibility, conduct of examinations, interview, assessment, prescribing minimum qualifying standards in ‘‘WE’' and interview, in relation to number of vacancies and communication of result, the Bank's decision shall be final and binding on the candidates and no correspondence shall be entertained in this regard.

    (xi) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises, where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disqualification including ban from future examinations.

    (xii) The Bank will not furnish the mark-sheet to candidates. However, the ‘‘WE’' and interview marks may be available on the Banks ‘website after the declaration of the final result.

    (xiii) The post is also open to the employees of RBI (staff candidates) who satisfy the eligibility criteria separately stipulated by the Bank.

    (xiv) Any resultant dispute arising out of this advertisement shall be subject to the sole jurisdiction of the Courts situated in Mumbai only.

Tuesday, February 28, 2012

84th Academy Awards

The 84th Academy Awards ceremony, hosted by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences (AMPAS), honored the best films of 2011. The ceremony took place at the Hollywood and Highland Center in Hollywood, California and was televised live in the United States on ABC on February 26, 2012.
The ceremony was hosted by Billy Crystal, marking his ninth time as host, and produced by Brian Grazer. Eddie Murphy was originally scheduled to be the host, and Brett Ratner was to be producer. However, Murphy stepped down after Ratner resigned, following Ratner's use of a gay slur when discussing rehearsals.
The Artist and Hugo each won five awards, with the former winning Best Picture and its star Jean Dujardin winning Best Actor. The Iron Lady won two awards, including Best Actress for Meryl Streep. The Artist became the first silent motion picture in 83 years (after Wings, which won Best Picture at the 1st Academy Awards) and the first French film to win Best Picture.
Best Picture: The Artist
Actress in Leading Role: Meryl Streep
Actor In Leading Role: Jean Dujardin
Actress in Supporting Role: Octavia Spencer for ‘The Help’
Actor in Supporting Role: Christopher Plummer for ‘Beginners’
Animated Feature Film: Rango
Cinematography: Hugo
Art Direction: Hugo
Costume Design: The Artist
Directing: The Artist
Documentary Feature: Undefeated
Documentary Short: Saving Face
Film Editing: The Girl with the Dragon Tattoo
Foreign Language Film: Iran ‘A Separation’
Makeup: The Iron Lady
Music (Original Score): The Artist
Music (Original Song): Man or Muppet from The Muppets
Short Film (Animated): The Fantastic Flying Books of Mr Morris Lessmore
Short Film (Live Action): The Shore
Sound Editing: Hugo
Sound Mixing: Hugo
Visual Effects: Hugo
Writing (Adapted Screenplay): The Descendants
Writing (Original Screenplay): Midnight in Paris

VRO AND VRA PAPER Keys

VILLAGE REVENUE OFFICERS (VRO) Key     
VILLAGE REVENUE ASSISTANTS (VRA) Key    

Thursday, February 16, 2012

Wednesday, February 15, 2012

CTET Paper-1 ( Child Development and Pedagogy & EVS) Exam Held On 29.01.2012

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

1.Human development is divided into domains such as
A) psychological, cognitive, emotional and physical
B) physical, spiritual, cognitive and social
C) physical, cognitive, emotional and social
D) emotional , cognitive, spiritual and social-psychological
2.Which of the following is a principle of development ?
A) It is a discontinuous process
B) All processes of development are not inter-connected
C) It does not proceed at the same pace for all
D) Development is always linear
3.Individual attention is important in the teaching - learning process because
A) It offers better opportunities to teachers to discipline each learner
B) Children develop at different rates and learn differently
C) learners always learn better in groups
D) teacher training programmes prescribe it
4.Human personality is the result of
A) only environment
B) only heredity
C) upbringing and education
D) interaction between heredity and environment
5.In the context of education, socialization means
A) adapting and adjusting to social environment
B) always following social norms
C) creating one's own social norms
D) respecting elders in society
6.young learners should be encouraged to interact with peers in the classroom so that
A) they learn social skills in the course of study
B) the teacher can control the classroom better
C) they can learn answers to questions from each other
D) the syllabus can be covered quickly
7.According to Piaget's stages of Cognitive Development, the sensori-motor stage is associated with
A) ability to interpret and analyse options
B) concerns about social issues
C) imitation, memory and mental representation
D) ability to solve problems in logical fashion
8.According to Kohlberg, a teacher can instill moral values in children by
A) involving them in discussions on moral issues
B) giving strict instructions on "how to behave"
C) giving importance to religious teachings
D) laying clear rules of behaviour
9.Which of the following is a feature of progressive education ?
A) Frequent tests and examinations
B) Flexible time-table and seating arrangement
C) Instruction based solely on prescribed text-books
D) Emphasis on scoring good marks in examinations
10.A teacher makes use of a variety of tasks to cater to the different learning styles of her learners. she is influenced by
A) Vygotsky's socio-cultural theory
B) Piaget's cognitive development theory
C) Kohlberg's moral development theory
D) Cardner's multiple intelligence theory
11.Vygotsky emphasized the significance of the role played by which of the following factors in the learning if children ?
A) Physical
B) Social
C) Hereditary
D) Moral
12.A School gives preference to girls while preparing students fro a State level solo-song competition . This reflects
A) Progressive thinking
B) Gender bias
C) Global trends
D) Pragmatic approach
13.Learners display individual differences. So a teacher should
A) increase number of tests
B) insist on uniform pace of learning
C) provide a variety of learning experiences
D) enforce strict discipline
14.School-based assessment is primarily based in the principle that
A) schools are more efficient than external bodies of examination
B) assessment should be very economical
C) teachers know their learners capabilities better than external examiners
D) students should at all costs get high grades
15.Which of the following is an objective questions ?
A) True or False
B) Essay type question
C) Short answer question
D) Open ended question
16.Inclusive Education
A) includes indoctrination of facts
B) includes teachers from marginalized groups
C) celebrates diversity in the classroom
D) encourages strict admission procedures
17.The emphasis from reaching to learning can be shifted by
A) adopting frontal teaching
B) focusing on examination results
C) adopting child-centred pedagogy
D) encouraging rote learning
18.When a child with a disability first comes to school, the teacher should
A) discuss whit the child's parents to evolve collaborative plans
B) conduct an admission test
C) refer the child to a special school according to the disability
D) seclude him from other students
19.When a child 'fails', it means
A) the system has failed
B) The child is not fit for studies
C) the child has not memorized the answers properly
D) the child should have taken private tuition
20.The most effective method to teach the concept of germination of seeds is
A) to show pictures of seed growth
B) to give detailed explanations
C) to make the students plant seeds and observe stages of germination
D) to draw pictures on the black -board and give descriptions
21.When a child gets bored while doing a task , it is a sign that
A) the child is not capable of learning
B) the child needs to be disciplined
C) the task may have become mechanically repetitive
D) the child is not intelligent
22.Which of the following is a domain if learning ?
A) Spiritual
B) Professional
C) Experiential
D) Affective
23.Which of the following is the first step in the scientific method of problem-solving ?
A) Collection of relevant information
B) Formation of hypothesis
C) Verification of hypothesis
D) Problem awareness
24.Errors of learners often indicate
A) absence of learning
B) socio-economic status of the learners
C) how they learn
D) the need for mechanical drill
25.A child starts to cry when his grandmother takes him from his mother's lap. the child cries due to
A) Stranger anxiety
B) Separation anxiety
C) Social anxiety
D) Emotional anxiety
26.A teacher uses a t ext and some pictures of fruits and vegetables and holds a discussion with her students , The students link the details with their previous knowledge and learn the concept of nutrition . This approach is based on
A) Operant conditioning of learning
B) Construction of knowledge
C) Classical conditioning of learning
D) Theory of reinforcement
27.Critical pedagogy firmly believes that
A) The experiences and perceptions of learners are important
B) the teacher should always lead the classroom instruction
C) The learners need not reason independently
D) what children learn out of school is irrelevant
28.A teacher, after preparing a question paper, checks whether the questions test specific testing objectives, He is concerned primarily about the question paper's
A) reliability
B) validity
C) content coverage
D) typology of questions
29.Which of the following is a teacher-related factor affecting learning ?
A) Nature of the content or learning experiences
B) Mastery over the subject-matter
C) Proper seating arrangement
D) Availability of teaching -learning resources
30.A teacher never gives answers to questions herself. She encourages her students to suggest answers, have group discussions and adopt collaborative learning. This approach is based on the principle of
A) readiness to learn
B) active participation
C) proper organization of instructional material
D) setting a good example and being a role-model

Environmental Studies
1.In which one of the following groups are the words intimately related ?
A) Mosquito , Dengue , Iron , Jaggery
B) Mosquito , Malaria , Anaemia , Iron
C) Iron , Malaria, Anaemia, Blood
D) Iron , Haemoglobin, Anaemia, Amla
2.Arti noticed the following precautions related to prevention of spread of a disease on a poster
1) Do not let water collect around you
2) Keep water pots, coolers and tanks clean
3) Spray oil if water has collected at some place
4) Use nets to protect yourself
The poster is aimed at creating awareness about the spread of
A) typhoid and cholera
B) Dengue and Japanese Encephalitis
C) Small pox and Malaria
D) Dengue and eye flu
3.Study the venn diagram given below :
animals that live on land
animals that live in water
animals that lay eggs
which of the following animals lives in all of these areas
A) Fish
B) Crocodile
C) Eel
D) Shark
4.Anjali's friend suggested the following four ways to avoid tooth decay
1) Brush your teeth twice a day
2) Wear braces to avoid enamel decay
3) Avoid sweets, chocolates and carbonated drinks
4) Rinse mouth after every meal
Which of the above ways should Anjali follow ?
A) a and c
B) b, c and d
C) c, d and a
D) d, a and b
5.An air-pump is kept in an aquarium in order to
A) enhance the beauty of the aquarium
B) make water cleaner
C) Provide more carbon dioxide to water plants
D) allow more oxygen to dissolve in water
6.Which one of the following pairs of life processes occurs both in plants and animals ?
A) Growth and reproduction
B) Growth and food making
C) Reproduction and food making
D) Reproduction and germination
7.Which one of the following best describes the feature on the surface of the moon ?
A) No air, no gravity , no water
B) No air , no gravity , smooth surface
C) NO water, enough air , high mountains
D) No water, deep craters, high mountains
8.A fish dies when it is put in an aquarium filled with previously boiled water but cooled to room temperature. This happens because the water in the aquarium is
A) depleted in minerals
B) unfit for swimming by fish
C) depleted in oxygen
D) unfit for drinking by fish
9.Rekha's mother adds Phitkari ( alum) to water collected from the pond every day in order to
A) kill germs in water
B) decolourize water
C) sediment light suspended impurities
D) change hard water into soft water
10.In order to separate a mixture of sand and salt, which one of the following four sequences of processes has to be used ?
A) Sedimentation, decantation, filtration , evaporation
B) Filtration , decantation , evaporation , sedimentation
C) Evaporation , sedimentation , decantation , filtration
D) Decantation , sedimentation , evaporation , filtration
11.Weight-lifters are generally required to make more muscles and body mass. for this purpose, they need to take a diet which is rich in
A) Vitamins
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fats
12.Which one of the following is a good cooking practice ?
A) Cooking the vegetables by deep frying to kill bacteria
B) Washing the vegetables nicely and then cutting
C) cutting the vegetables and then washing these in running water
D) Keeping the vegetables in sunshine for some time before cutting and cooking
13.While teaching how different food items cna be kept fresh for some time, Radha enumerated the following techniques to her class
1) Put it in a bowl and keep the bowl in an open container having cold water
2) Wrap it in a damp cloth
3) Spread it open in sunshine
4) Cut it into small pieces and keep it in the dark
Which one of the following food items is she referring to, corresponding to technique "2" above ?
A) Kaju burfi
B Cooked rice
C) Onion, garlic
D) Green coriander
14.All big cities are facing the problem of environmental pollution as a result of a large number of vehicles on the roads. the best way an individual in the city can contribute towards environmental protection is by
A) Not keeping a personal vehicle like scooter, car, etc.
B) getting the engine of personal vehicle checked regularly for environmental safe limits
C) using a public transport system for travelling
D) avoiding frequent travel outside the home
15.While performing experiments whit water, Jyoti observed that an empty steel bowl floats but a small iron nail sinks in water. This can be explained by the fact that
A) Iron is heavier than water and steel is lighter than water
B) Iron is lighter than water and steel is heavier than water
C) Force on a steel bowl is more than its weight whereas force on an iron nail is lesser than its weight
D) Force on an iron nail is more than its weight whereas force on a steel bowl is lesser than its weight
16.Engage, Explore, Explain ,Elaborate and Evaluate are five important 'Es' in relation to effective teaching of Science .
To provide practical experiences to the students related to the concept of 'Necessary conditions for germination'; a Science teacher asks them to do the following activities :
1. Soak seeds overnight and keep these is a wet cotton cloth .
2. Observe the seeds after two days and record and changes
3. Read the book and attempt the given worksheet.
Which of the five 'Es' given above are not being covered in the above activities given by the teacher ?
A) Engage and Explore
B) Engage and Evaluate
C) Explain and Elaborate
D) Explore and Evaluate
17.Which one of the following sequences of steps is the correct way of preparing a balanced question paper ?
A) Writing the questions, preparing the blueprint, matching with the design , writing the marking scheme
B) Preparing a design, preparing a blueprint, writing and editing the questions , writing the marking scheme
C) Preparing the design, writing the questions, preparing the marking scheme, matching with the blueprint
D) Writing and editing the questions, matching with the design, preparing the blueprint, writing the marking scheme
18.There are four below average students in a class. which one of the following strategies will be most effective to bring them at par with the other students
A) Give them additional assignments to do at home
B) Make them sit in the front row and supervise their work constantly
C) Identify their weak areas of learning and provide remedial measures accordingly
D) Ensure that they attend the school regularly
19.A Science teacher administered a test after teaching the topic on 'Respiration' and observed that majority of the students did not understand the difference between respiration and breathing, This could be due to the reason that
A) There was usually lot of indiscipline in her class
B) She could not explain the related concept effectively in the class
C) She was not their class teacher
D) The students could not understand the question correctly
20.While teaching the topic on 'Air', an EVS teacher wanted to demonstrate that air has weight and occupies space, Her colleague suggested the following four different activities for this purpose to her :
1) Place an empty inverted beaker on the surface of the water and start pressing it down
2) Suck the juice through a straw
3) Blow air in a balloon
4) Tie two inflated balloons to a rod and establish equilibrium . Then puncture one of the balloons
Which of the above activities will lead to demonstrating the desired result ?
A) a and c
B) a and b
C) a and d
D) b and d
21.Which one of the following teaching strategies will be most effective for maximum involvement of students in teaching the concept of food chain ?
A) Ask students to explore possible food chains operating in different habitats
B) Ask students to collect related information from internet
C) Ask students to copy all examples of different food chains written on the black-board
D) Make play -cards of organisms and ask student groups to arrange them to depict different food chains
22.In order to introduce the topic on 'Nutrition' in class more effectively, a teacher should
A) draw the diagram of digestive system on the black-board
B) show the model fo human denture
C) ask the students to open their tiffin boxes, see the contents, followed by teacher 's explanation
D) give examples of different foods rich in nutrients
23.After having been taught about the rich flora and fauna in India, the students of primary classes were taken to Ranthambhore National Park by the school. This would help the students to
A) have fun and enjoy with friends on an outdoor trip
B) Develop respect for nature
C) Co-relate classroom learning to real-life situations
D) develop skills for environmental protection
24.The topic 'Depletion of Petroleum and Coal' was taught to Section A of a class by using multimedia capsule while the other Section B was taught through diagrams drawn on the Green Board. It was found later that students of Section A understood the topic to a better extent. This could be due to the reason that
A) Audio-visual aids engage all the senses for better retention
B) Green Board is not a good visual aid
C) Multiple approach is closer to everyday life situations
D) use of multimedia aids is comparatively more economical
25.Samir of Class V usually does not submit his assignments to the EVS teacher in time, The best corrective measure could be to
A) write a note to parents about his irregularity
B) bring it to the notice of the Principal
C) Stop him from going to the games class
D) Find out the reasons for irregularity and counsel Samir
26.The major purpose of periodic parent-teacher interactions is to
A) Highlight each other's shortcomings
B) Share the information about ongoing events in the school
C) Discuss the child's strengths and weaknesses for reinforcement and improvement
D) Develop a social relationship with each other
27.While teaching the topic on 'Air is everywhere', a teacher asks the following questions from the students:
1. Is there air in the soil ?
2. Is there air inside water ?
3. Is there air inside our body?
4. Is there air inside our bones ?
which one of the following skills is the teacher trying to develop in the learners ?
A) Observation skills
B) Classification skills
C) Thinking skills
D) Emotional Skills

28.A teacher can identify a stressed child when the child shows the following behaviour :
A) Hyperactivity
B) Aggressive bheaviour
C) Full concentration in studies
D) excessive talking
29.Which one of the following four teaching methodologies followed by four different Science teachers for teaching the topic 'Air Pollution ' is most appropriate ?
A) Asking the students to read the topic from the test-book loudly and explaining the meaning of concepts/terms
B) Dictating the answers to all the questions in the exercise after completing the topic
C) Showing a documentary film on "Air Pollution" to the students
D) Asking the students to collect air samples before and after Diwali , study their quality and tabulate the findings
30.While teaching the topic 'Frictions" to Class-V students, a teacher gave a number of examples to explain that friction is also useful to us in may ways . Which one of the following examples was quoted by her incorrectly ?
A) A vehicle stops on application of brakes
B) We are able to write due to friction between the tip of the pen and the paper
C) We are able to walk because of friction between our shoes and the ground
D) An object thrown vertically upwards always comes back to us due to friction
Ans.Child Development
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10.D
11.B
12.B
13.C
14.C
15.A
16.C
17.C
18.A
19.A
20.C
21.C
22.D
23.D
24.D
25.D
26.B
27.A
28.C
29.B
30.B
Environmental Studies
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. C
10.B
11.B
12.B
13.D
14.C
15.C
16.A
17.B
18.C
19.B
20.C
21.D
22.C
23.C
24.A
25.D
26.C
27.A
28.B
29.D
30.D