Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS)

This system of Common Examination for recruitment of Probationary Officers / Management Trainees has been approved by each of the 20 participating Public Sector Banks and the Managing Committee of the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) with the consent of the Govt of India.

IBPS, an autonomous body registered under Societies Registration Act 1860 and a Public Trust under Bombay Public Trust Act 1950, has been authorised by IBA and has received a mandate from the 20 Public Sector Banks listed below to conduct the Common Written Examination. The CWE for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee posts will be conducted twice a year by IBPS

PARTICIPATING BANKS
Allahabad Bank	Canara Bank
Indian Overseas Bank	Union Bank of India
Andhra Bank	Central Bank of India
Oriental Bank of Commerce	United Bank of India
Bank of Baroda	Corporation Bank
Punjab National Bank	UCO Bank
Bank of India	Dena Bank
Punjab & Sind Bank	Vijaya Bank
Bank of Maharashtra	Indian Bank
Syndicate Bank	IDBI Bank

An individual who aspires to join any of the above Public Sector Banks as a Probationary Officer/ Management Trainee will necessarily be required to take the CWE. Prospective candidates who wish to appear for the CWE will have to apply to IBPS and should carefully read the advertisement regarding eligibility criteria, online registration process, pattern of examination, issuance of call letters and score cards.
Candidates who appear for the CWE will be able to check their status after the examination. Scorecards will be issued to candidates who secure minimum qualifying marks and above in each test of the examination.

Each participating Public Sector Bank will independently issue a separate recruitment notification, specifying their vacancies and stipulating the eligibility criteria in terms of age, educational qualification, experience (if any), minimum required level of IBPS score in each component test plus Total Weighted Score (if any) etc. Successful candidates in the CWE who have been issued scorecards and who meet the stipulated eligibility criteria are then required to apply to any of the participating banks. They wish to, quoting their personal details and their CWE scores. Each bank will then individually shortlist candidates and carry out their own selection processes such as Group Discussions and/ or Interviews etc. for final selection.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA

Please note that the eligibility criteria specified is the basic criteria for applying to various Public Sector Banks. However merely applying for CWE/ appearing for the examination does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be eligible for employment in all or any of the 20 Public Sector Banks as each Bank will stipulate its own eligibility/ qualifying criteria.

Prospective Candidates should ensure that they fulfill the specified eligibility criteria
before applying for the Common Written Examination (CWE):

I. Nationality / Citizenship:
A candidate must be either -
(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

II Age:
Minimum: 20 Years Maximum: 28 Years
The maximum age limit specified is applicable to General Category candidates.
Relaxation of Upper age limit

Sl. No	Category	Age relaxation
1	Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe	5 years
2	Other Backward Classes (Non-Creamy Layer)	3 years
3	Persons With Disabilities	10 years
4	Ex-Servicemen Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers (ECOs)/ Short Service Commissioned Officers (SSCOs) who have rendered at least 5 years military service and have been released on	5 years
5	completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within the stipulated time) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or physical disability attributable to military service or invalidment 5 Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989	5 years
6	Persons affected by 1984 riots	5 years
7	Persons who have completed 5 years of service in RRBs	5 year

NOTE: 
(i) In case of a candidate who is eligible for relaxation under more than one of the above categories the age relaxation will be available on a cumulative basis with any one of the remaining categories for which age relaxation is permitted as mentioned above.
(ii) Candidates seeking age relaxation will be required to submit copies of necessary certificate(s) at the time of Interview conducted by a particular Bank, if called by the Bank.
(iii) Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured employment under the Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ will be permitted the benefit of age relaxation as prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group ‘C’/ ‘D’ under the Central Government. However, such candidates will not be eligible for the benefit of reservation for Ex-Servicemen in Central
Government jobs.

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS :

A degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

WRITTEN EXAMINATION
Written Examination Structure for IBPS PO:-

Sl. No	Name of the section	No of questions	Maximum marks	Duration
1	Reasoning	50	50	Composite Time of 120 minutes
2	English Language	40	40
3	Quantitative Aptitude	50	50
4	General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry)	40	40
5	Computer Knowledge	20	20
	Total		200	120

The above tests except the Test of English Language
will be printed bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.
marks in each of the objective tests will be evaluated.

Exam Syllabus For IBPS PO

1. IBPS PO - ENGLISH LANGUAGE (40 marks, 40 questions)
Vocabulary: Synonyms, Antonyms, Homonyms, Word Formation, Sentence Completion
Comprehension: Theme detection, Deriving Conclusion, Passage Completion
Error Detection and Rearrangement: Passage Correction, Sentence Correction, Spelling
Grammar: Active Passive Voice, Direct Indirect Speech
General Usage: Idioms and Phrases

2. IBPS PO - LOGICAL REASONING (50 marks, 50 questions)
Verbal Reasoning: Analogy, Coding Decoding, Blood Relation, Sitting Arrangement, Series Completion, Syllogism, Decision Making, Statement Reasoning
Non-verbal Reasoning: Series Completion, Analogy, and Classification

3. IBPS PO - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (50 marks, 50 questions)
Arithmetic: Numbers, Simplification, Roots, Average, Surds & Indices, Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Partnership, Chain Rule, Time & Work, Pipes & Cisterns, Time & Distance, Problems on Trains, Boats & Streams, Alligation, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Stocks & Shares, Clocks, Logarithms, Mensuration, Volume & Surface Area, Permutation & combination, Probability, Heights & Distances
Data Interpretation: Tabulation, Bar Graphs, Line Graphs, Pie Charts 

4. IBPS PO - GENERAL/MARKETING/BANKING AWARENESS (40 marks, 40 questions)
Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environments around him and its application to society. These questions will be such that they do not require a specific study of any discipline.
- Knowledge of current events
- Everyday observations and experience in the scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person
- India and its neighboring countries
- Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economy, General Polity, Indian Constitution, Scientific Research
Over 70% of the questions will be related to Economy, Banking and Finance. 

5. IBPS PO - COMPUTER AWARENESS (20 marks, 20 questions)
General Knowledge on Computer usage and application (basic hardware and software) 

Process for arriving at Total Weighted Standard Score in the Common Written Examination: 
Maximum Standard Scores and expdected Cutoffs in Each Objective Test

S. No.	Name of the Test	Maximum Standard  Score	Minimum Qualifying Standard Score (expected)
			SC/ST/OBC/PWD	General
1	Test of Reasoning	50	21	24
2	Test of English Language	40	17	21
3	Test of Quantitative Aptitude	50	21	24
4	Test of General Awareness	40	17	21
5	Test of Computer Knowledge	20	08	11

EXAMINATION (ONLINE)
Structure of Examination for Clerk:

Sl. No	Name of the post	No of questions	Maximum marks	Duration
1	Reasoning	40	40	Composite Time of 120 minutes
2	English Language	40	40
3	Quantitative Aptitude	40	40
4	General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry)	40	40
5	Computer Knowledge	40	40
	total	200	200

The above tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually,

i.e. : English and Hindi.

Exam Syllabus For IBPS Clerk

1. IBPS Clerk - ENGLISH LANGUAGE (40 marks, 40 questions)
Vocabulary: Synonyms, Antonyms, Homonyms, Word Formation, Sentence Completion
Comprehension: Theme detection, Deriving Conclusion, Passage Completion
Error Detection and Rearrangement: Passage Correction, Sentence Correction, Spelling
Grammar: Active Passive Voice, Direct Indirect Speech
General Usage: Idioms and Phrases

2. IBPS Clerk - LOGICAL REASONING (40 marks, 40 questions)
Verbal Reasoning: Analogy, Coding Decoding, Blood Relation, Sitting Arrangement, Series Completion, Syllogism, Decision Making, Statement Reasoning
Non-verbal Reasoning: Series Completion, Analogy, and Classification

3. IBPS Clerk - QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (40 marks, 40 questions)
Arithmetic: Numbers, Simplification, Roots, Average, Surds & Indices, Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Partnership, Chain Rule, Time & Work, Pipes & Cisterns, Time & Distance, Problems on Trains, Boats & Streams, Alligation, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Stocks & Shares, Clocks, Logarithms, Mensuration, Volume & Surface Area, Permutation & combination, Probability, Heights & Distances
Data Interpretation: Tabulation, Bar Graphs, Line Graphs, Pie Charts 

4. IBPS Clerk - GENERAL/MARKETING/BANKING AWARENESS (40 marks, 40 questions)
Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environments around him and its application to society. These questions will be such that they do not require a specific study of any discipline.
- Knowledge of current events
- Everyday observations and experience in the scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person
- India and its neighboring countries
- Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economy, General Polity, Indian Constitution, Scientific Research
Over 70% of the questions will be related to Economy, Banking and Finance. 

5. IBPS Clerk - COMPUTER AWARENESS (40 marks, 40 questions)
General Knowledge on Computer usage and application (basic hardware and software) 

Comparative view of Exam Structure

Topic	PO		Clerk
	Marks	No.Questions	Marks	No. Questions
English	40	40	40	40
Reasoning	50	50	40	40
Aptitude	50	50	40	40
GK	40	40	40	40
Computer Knowledge	20	20	40	40
English (Descriptive)	-	-	-	-
Total	200	200	200	200
Max Minutes		120 (Min)		120 (Min)

BHEL Hyderabad Recruitment of Artisan Posts

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited invites applications for the post of Artisan.

Post Details:
1. Machinist: 245
2. Turner: 164
3. Fitter: 285
4. Blacksmith: 5
5. Welder: 59
6. Carpenter: 5
7. Electrician: 37
Total No. of posts: 800

Qualification: 
Matric / SSC with National Trade Certificate (NTC) and National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) in the respective trades of Machinist / Turner / Fitter / Blacksmith / Welder / Carpenter / Electrician with not less than 60% marks in both NTC and NAC. Working knowledge of Telugu is desirable.

Selection Process:
 Written Test and Interview.
Address: 
Post Bag No.9, Mukhya Dak Ghar, BHEL RC Puram HE, Hyderabad.
Last Date of On-line submission application: 05 October 2013
Last date for receipt of Acknowledgement slips along with other documents at BHEL Hyderabad: 12 October 2013

Website: http://careers.bhel.in or http://web.bhelhyd.co.in/

Visakhapatnam Port Trust Recruitment of Trade Apprentice Posts

Vizag Port Trust, Mechanical & Electrical Department has given recruitment notification for the posts of Trade Apprentices.
Trade Apprentice post details:
1. Welder: 17 Posts
2. Electrician: 25 Posts
3. Fitter: 30 Posts
4. Mechanic (Motor Vehicle): 15 Posts
5. Machinist: 05 Posts
6. Carpenter: 04 Posts
7. Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Mechanic: 01 post
8. Electronics Mechanic: 02 Posts
Total No. of Posts: 99 

Qualification: 
Candidates should possess Passed ITI in the relevant trade with one year of experience.

Address: 
Chief Mechanical Engineer, Visakhapatnam Port Trust, Visakhapatnam-530 035.
Last Date for Receipt of Applications: 30 September 2013

Website: http://www.vizagport.com/

Stree Nidhi Credit Cooperative Federation Ltd. Recruitment of Managerial Posts

Applications are invited for the following posts:

Deputy General Manager (Fund Management): 01 Post Qualifications: PG and preference will be given to MBA / PGDBM in Finance / Commerce /Agriculture from a recognised university, preferably with CAIIB.  Deputy General Manager (Institution Monitoring): 01 Post Qualifications: PG and preference will be given to MBA / PGDBM in Finance / M.Com. /Agriculture.  Assistant General Manager (Credit Monitoring): 03 Posts Qualifications: PG preference will be given to MBA / PGDBM in Finance / Commerce / Agriculture / Social Work.  Manager (Institution Monitoring): 02 Posts Qualifications: PG with M.Com. / MBA (Finance), DCA with proficiency in computer application.  Manager (Accounts): 01 Post Qualifications: PG in Commerce, MBA (Finance), DCA with proficiency in computer application. Preference will be given to candidates with ICWA (inter), CA (Inter). How to Apply: Eligible candidates have to submit their curriculum vitae to the Stree Nidhi Cooperative Credit Federation Ltd, C/o Society for Elimination of Rural Poverty, 3rd Floor, HUDA- Hermitage Offices Complex, # 5-10-192, Hill Fort Road, Saifabad, Hyderabad-500004. Last Date: 12/09/2013 For more details Click here

SOUTH CENTRAL RAILWAY RECRUITMENT OF GROUP-D POSTS

South Central Railway, Secunderabad invites applications for the recruitment of 2801Group D Posts.

Post Details:
1. Trackman: 1979
2. Helper-II: 440
3. Assistant Points man: 382
Total No. of posts: 2801

Qualification: 
Candidates should posses qualification of pass in 10th or ITI or equivalent. Candidates who appearing or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent on the date of application are not eligible to apply.

Age Limite: 
The normal age (in complete years) for the recruitment is 18-33 years reckoned as on 01.01.14.
Application Fee: Rs.100/-

Assistant Personnel Officer / RRC / SC, Written Examination Control Centre, Railway Bunglow No.100, Opp. St. Anthony's Church, Beside Mettuguda Bus stop, South Lallaguda, Secunderabad (A.P).

Last Date for submission of application: 30 September 2013

Employment Notification

Annexure-1 (application form)

Annexure-2 (SC/ST caste certificate format)

Annexure-3 (OBC caste certificate format)

Annexure-4 (Declaration for OBC)

Annexure-5 (Disability Certificate)

Annexure-6 (Declaration for VH candidates for Scribe)

Annexure-7 (Declaration for Minority Community candidates)

Annexure-8 (Income certificate for waiver of Exam fees)

South Central Railway Recruitment of Group C & Group D Posts

South Central Railway (Railway Recruitment Cell) invites application for the following posts:

Group C: 21 Posts Archery (Men) (Recurve): 01 Post Athletics (Men) (1500 Mts.): 01 Post Athletics (Men) (Long Jump): 01 Post Athletics (Women) (400 Mts.): 01 Post Athletics (Women) (Hammer Throw): 01 Post Archery (Men): 01 Post Body Building (Men): 01 Post Cricket (Women): 01 Post Cross Country (Men): 01 Post Cross Country (Women): 01 Post Cycling (Men): 02 Posts Gymnastics (Men): 01 Post Handball (Men): 02 Posts Kabaddi (Women): 02 Posts Volleyball (Men): 01 Post Volleyball (Women): 02 Posts Qualifications: i). 10th class pass or above. ii). Graduation from any recognised university. Group D PB-1: 40 Posts Qualifications: SSC. However, outstanding sportspersons who do not possess SSC but having the qualification of 8th passed shall also apply. They will be considered for recruitment in (-) 1S Pay Band. Age Limit: 18 to 25 years as on 01-01-2014. Fees: Rs.40/- for post in Grade Pay Rs. 1800/- and 1Rs .900/2000/- and Rs. 60/- for those in Grade Pay Rs.2400/2800/-. Fee should be paid in the form of crossed Bank Draft/Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Financial Advisor & Chief Accounts Officer, South Central Railway payable at Secunderabad for the posts of Headquarters and Senior Divisional Finance Manager of respective divisions for the divisional posts. The fee is not refundable under any circumstances. Candidates belonging to SC/ST communities, Women, Minority and Economically Backward Classes (Family income is less than ` 50,000/- per annum) are exempted from the payment of fees. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the following address as mention below: The Senior Divisional Personnel Officer, Sanchalan Bhavan, Secunderabad Division, S.C. Railway, Secunderabad. The Senior Divisional Personnel Officer, Hyderabad Division, S.C. Railway, Secunderabad. The Senior Divisional Personnel Officer, Vijayawada Division, S.C. Railway, Vijayawada. The Senior Divisional Personnel Officer, Guntakal Division, S.C. Railway, Guntakal. The Senior Divisional Personnel Officer, Nanded Division, S.C. Railway, Nanded. The Senior Divisional Personnel Officer, Guntur Division, S.C. Railway, Guntur. Last Date: 23/09/2013 For more details Click here

UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam. February 2013 Solved Paper

UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam, February 2013

General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawm who expired on 1st October, 2012, has authored a large number of books. The title of his famous autobiography is–
(a) Bandits
(b) Uncommon People : Resistance, Rebellion and Jazz
(c) The New Century : In Conversation with Antonio Polito
(d) Interesting Times : A Twentieth Century Life
Ans : (d)

2. Which of the following institutions was/were asked by the Government of India to provide official estimates of black (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India and abroad?
1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
2. National Council of Applied Economic Research
3. National Institute of Financial Management
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (d)

3. The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of capital nature is termed as–
(a) revenue deficit (b) effective revenue deficit
(c) fiscal deficit (d) primary deficit
Ans : (b)

4. Which one among the following programmes has now been restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission?
(a) Swarna Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana
(b) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(c) Janshree Bima Yojana
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
Ans : (b)

5. Which of the following are included in the category of Direct Tax in India?
1. Corporation Tax 2. Tax on Income 3. Wealth Tax
4. Customs Duty 5. Excise Duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans : (a)

6. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run ?
(a) Insurance on buildings (b) Overtime payment to workers
(c) Cost of energy (d) Cost of raw materials
Ans : (a)

7. The government can influence private sector expenditure by–
1. taxation 2. subsidies
3. macroeconomic policies 4. grants
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (a)

8. Which of the following occupations are included under secondary sector as per the national income accounts?
1. Manufacturing 2. Construction
3. Gas and water supply 4. Mining and quarrying
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (c)

9. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year 2011 was due to–
1. flight to safety by foreign investors
2. meltdown in European markets
3. inflation in emerging market economies
4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (a)

10. The lower growth of coal production in India during 2011-12 was primarily due to–
1. environmental restrictions
2. non-availability of forestry clearance
3. poor law and order situation in coal-producing States
4. excessive rainfall in coalmining areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
Ans : (b)

11. Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed by UNDP is based on which of the following deprivations ?
1. Income deprivation 2. Literacy deprivation
3. Social services deprivation 4. Employment deprivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans : (b)

12. In the Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, ‘Bribat Sambita’. It was a treatise on–
(a) Astronomy (b) Statecraft
(c) Ayurvedic system of medicine (d) Economics
Ans : (a)

13. The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of–
(a) Chunar near Mirzapur (b) Lauriya in Nandangarh
(c) Sarnath near Varanasi (d) Udayagiri near Bhubaneswar
Ans : (a)

14. Which one-among the following statements with regard to the National Security Council (NSC) of India is not correct ?
(a) It is a three-tiered organisation
(b) The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is its member
(c) It is the apex body looking exclusively the security concerns of the country
(d) RAW and Intelligence Bureau (India) report to NSC
Ans : (d)

15.The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Sirajud-daulah, as–
(a) growth of large-scale British trade
(b) an attack upon his sovereignty
(c) insecurity of the British in India
(d) British control aver Bengal
Ans : (b)

16. Which one among the following has been included as a parameter far the first time under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based an Central Pollution Control Board and IIT-Kanpur research, WHO guidelines and European Union limits arid practices?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
Ans : (c)

17. Fourth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March 2012, deliberated an the challenges faced by India, for sustainable growth. Which one among the fallowing is not a part of the formulated challenges?
(a) Improvements required in public sector management
(b) Inclusive growth
(c) Improvements required in physical infrastructure
(d) Development in the agricultural sector
Ans : (d)

18. ONGC Videsh (the State-owned oil and gas company of India) recently (September 2012) signed a definitive agreement with–
(a) Russia (b) Azerbaijan
(c) Iran (d) South Sudan
Ans : (b)

19. Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not correct ?
(a) A group of developed countries
(b) An integral part of the United Nations
(c) Outside the World Bank and IMF
(d) An offshoot of G-7
Ans : (b)

20. Which one among the following countries initiated the process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition ?
(a) Libya (b) Afghanistan
(c) Tunisia (d) Morocco
Ans : (c)
21. Some atheists, skeptics and non- believers called to celebrate 'December 25' as Newtonmas Day instead of observing Christmas Day. The reason they propose that
(a) both Isaac Newton and Jesus Christ were great
(b) Isaac Newton was born on 25th December
(c) 'Skeptic Society' was founded on 25th December
(d) Isaac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity
Ans : (b)

22. European Union's Annual Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought for 2012 has been won by–
(a) Guillermo Farinas from Cuba
(b) Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi from Iran
(c) Ali Farzat from Syria and Mohamed Bouazizi from Tunisia
(d) Asmaa Mahfouz and Ahmed al-Senussi from Egypt and Libya respectively
Ans : (b)

23. The Rohingya are the minorities of–
(a) South Africa (b) Canada
(c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan
Ans : (c)

24. Consider the following statements :
During the last week of November 2012, Palestinian engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was done primarily to–
1. place the remains of Yasser Arafat in a mosque compound
2. confirm the prevailing suspicion that Israel had poisoned him
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (b)

25. Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He defeated–
(a) Andy Murray (b) Roger Federer
(c) Novak Djokovic (d) David Ferrer
Ans : (c)

26. Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of World Heritage Sites of the UNESCO?
(a) Western Ghats (b) Agra Fort
(c) Ajanta Caves (d) Meenakshi Temple
Ans : (a)

27. Which one among the following is not a salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012 ?
(a) For spending the amount earmarked for corporate social responsibility, the company shall give preferences to local areas where it operates
(b) Punishment for falsely inducing a person to enter into an agreement with bank or financial institution with a view to obtaining credit facilities
(c) There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor
(d) ‘Independent directors’ shall be excluded for the purpose of computing 'one-third of retiring directors'
Ans : (c)

28. FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all products is now permitted in India subject to–
1. a ceiling of 51%
2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor' is US $ 100 million
3. at least 50% of the procurement of manufactured/processed products should be sourced from 'small industries'
4. retail sales locations set up only in cities with a population of mote than 10 lacs
Select the correct condition/ conditions using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans : (d)

29. Why was Kaushik Basu, the ex-economic advisor to the Prime Minister of India, in news recently ? He was appointed as–
(a) the President of the IMF
(b) the President of the World Bank
(c) the Economic Advisor of the United Nations
(d) the Chief Economist of the World Bank
Ans : (d)

30. Who among the following was selected for the prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2012 ?
(a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (b) Ela Bhatt
(c) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (d) Sheikh Hasina
Ans : (a)

31. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that–
1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers
2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth
3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge
4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-naib or Vie Regent of the Empire
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (c)

32. Ibn Batuta's work, Rihla, completed in 1355, is–
(a) an autobiography
(b) an account of the Delhi Sultans from Aibek to Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
(c) a religious text
(d) an account of trade with Morocco
Ans : (a)

33. Several socio-political organisations were formed in the 19th and 20th Centuries in India. Anguman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam, founded in the year 1914 was–
(a) All India Muslim Ladies Conference
(b) a radical wing of the All India Muslim League
(c) All India Muslim Students' Conference
(d) All India Islamic Conference
Ans : (a)

34. British colonialism in India saw the emergence of new cities. Calcutta (now Kolkata) was one of the first cities. Which of the following villages were amalgamated to form the city of Calcutta?
(a) Midnapur, Chittagong, Burdwan
(b) 24-Parganas, Kalikata, Thakurgaon
(c) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur
(d) Midnapur, Thakurgaon, Gobindapur
Ans : (c)

35.What was ‘Ziyarat’ in the language of the Sufis ?
(a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi saints for seeking barkat (spiritual grace)
(b) Reciting divine name
(c) Offering free kitchens run on futub (unasked for charity)
(d) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts)
Ans : (a)

36. Which of the following was /were not related to Buddha's life ?
1. Kanthaka 2. Alara Kalama
3. Channa 4. Goshala Maskariputra
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1 only (b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
Ans : (b)

IOCL Recruitment of 250 Assistant Officers / Assistant Engineers

Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) Offers Unique Opportunity to 250 Graduate Engineers to Join as Assistant Officers / Assistant Engineers on the basis of GATE-2013 score:

Assistant Officers / Assistant Engineers: 250 Posts Disciplines: Civil Engineering (Excluding Construction/ Environmental/ Transportation Engineering) Chemical Engineering (Including Petrochemicals Engineering but excluding Oil Paint, Surface Coating and Ceramic Engineering) Electrical Engineering (Including Electrical & Electronics Engineering but excluding Electrical & Communication/ Telecommunication Engineering) Instrumentation Engineering (Including Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering but excluding Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Telecommunication Engineering) Mechanical Engineering (Excluding Automation/ Automobile/ Production/ Manufacturing/ Industrial Engineering) Metallurgical Engineering Qualifications: i). Candidates should have passed qualifying degree examinations and awarded Bachelors degree in Engineering / Technology (BE / B.Tech. or equivalent) in the above mentioned disciplines (full time regular courses only) from recognised Indian universities / institutes. ii). Candidates, belonging to General and OBC (non- creamy layer) categories, should have secured minimum 65% marks in qualifying degree examinations. It is relaxed to ‘pass’ for SC / ST / PWD candidates. iii). Candidates, who have completed their Bachelors degree in Engineering / Technology or will complete the same by September, 2013 are eligible to apply. iv) Candidates pursuing / completed M.Tech. in any disciplines, other than mentioned above, for being eligible, must have completed (or are completing) BE / B.Tech in one of the above mentioned disciplines and already taken GATE-2013 examination in the discipline of their B.Tech. are eligible to apply. For example, if a candidate has completed (or is pursuing) his M.Tech. in Power Systems and if he has done his B.Tech. in Electrical Engineering (which is one of the core disciplines advertised by Indian Oil, he will be eligible, only if he appeared in GATE- 2013 examination in Electrical Engineering and has a valid score in GATE-2013. On the contrary, if the same candidate had done his BE / B.Tech. in Electronics & Communication Engineering, he will not be eligible. v). Integrated ME / M.Tech. candidates will be eligible, if they have already completed the course requirement for awarding BE / B.Tech. in one of the core disciplines advertised above and have completed (or completing) ME / M.Tech. by September, 2013. At the end of the programme, if selected in Indian Oil, such candidates must have both BE/B.Tech and ME / M.Tech degree. vi). Candidates completed / are pursuing their graduation (BE / B.Tech.) in combined / integrated disciplines like Mechatronics / Robotics etc will not be eligible. Age Limit: Maximum 26 years as on 30th June, 2013 for the general category candidates. Selection Process: Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineers (GATE) 2013 score, Group Discussion / Group Task, Personal Interview. How to Apply: Interested and eligible candidates must have a valid GATE-2013 Registration Number and valid score from GATE-2013 examinations. Applications from eligible candidates shall be received online. Last Date: 21/09/2013 For more details Click here