Sunday, June 16, 2013

POSTAL ASSISTANTS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2013 (Exam Held On: 21-04-2013)

General Knowledge:
1. Government of India has recently granted "Maharatna Status to two more Navratna Public Sector enterprises. Which are the these new companies joining the club of Maharatna public sector undertakings.
(A) Steel authority of India Limited and National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
(B) Bharat heavy Electrical Ltd and Gas authority of India Limited
(C) Indian Oil Corporation and Coal India Limited
(D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
Ans. (B) Bharat heavy Electrical Ltd and Gas authority of India Limited

2. India's newly built and tested missile 'Astra' is meant for
(A) Surface to surface strike
(B) Air to Air Strike
(C) Surface to Air Strike
(D) Air to surface Strike
Ans. (B) Air to Air Strike

3. The Governor General who adopted a policy of Europeanization of Bureaucracy and an exlusion of Indian from higher posts
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Wellesley
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Dalhousie
Ans. (C) Cornwallis

4. During which movement Bal Gangadhar Tilak was given the epithet Lokmanya and Gandhiji give the slogan 'swaraj in a year' respectively:
(A) Home rule Movement and Non Cooperation Movement
(B) Swadeshi Movement and Dandi March
(C) Quit India Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Khilafat Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans. (A) Home rule Movement and Non Cooperation Movement

5. Recently Dargah Muinuddin Chisti at Ajmer was in news due to visit of Pakistani Prime Minister Dargah Muinudding Chisti at Ajmer was built by:
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak
(B) Alauddin Khilji
(C) IItutmish
(D) Khijra Khan
Ans. (B) Alauddin Khilji

6. Bauxite is an ore of:
(A) Zinc
(B) Aluminium
(C) Lead
(D) Copper
Ans. (B) Aluminium

7. Which one of the following is the land area in the extreme south of India?
(A) Indira Point
(B) Rameshwaram
(C) Cape Cammiran
(D) Puducherry
Ans. (A) Indira Point

8. The ozone layer lies in the:
(A) Troposphere
(B) Tropopause
(C) Stratosphere
(D) None of these
Ans. (C) Stratosphere

9. In Union Budget 2013-14, "Voluntary Compliance Encouragement Scheme" was launched by Government of India. This scheme is related to:
(A) Service Tax
(B) Commodity Transaction Tax
(C) Income Tax
(D) Securities Transaction Tax
Ans. (A) Service Tax

10. Economic Survey 2012-13 states that Non Performing Assets of increased from 2.36% to 3.57% in September, 2012. The description of Non performing Assets was with reference to which sector.
(A) Telecom Sector
(B) Human Resource Sector
(C) Oil and Gas Sector
(D) Banking Sector
Ans. (D) Banking Sector

11. This is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks:
(A) Reverse Repo rate
(B) Statutory Liquidity ratio
(C) Repo rate
(D) Cash reserve ratio
Ans. (A) Reverse Repo rate

12. As per election commission of India, how many recognized national political parties are there in India?
(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) 6

13. The present deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected member of Parliament from which State of India?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Ans. (C) Kerala

14. The constitution of India was adopted on:
(A) 26th January, 1950
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 26th November, 1949
(D) 26th January, 1951
Ans. (C) 26th November, 1949

15. The Present strength of Rajya Sabha members is ..... out of which..... are representatives of states and union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and .... are nominated by president:
(A) 250, 238, 12
(B) 247, 235, 12
(C) 245, 233, 12
(D) 248, 236, 12
Ans. (C) 245, 233, 12

16. Which of the following glands produces insulin in human body?
(A) Pancreas
(B) Spleen
(C) Liver
(D) Pituitary
Ans. (A) Pancreas

17. Which of the following is food poisoning organism
(A) Clostridium botulinum
(B) Streptomyces fecalis
(C) Lacto bacillus
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) Clostridium botulinum

18. Development of goitre (Enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly due to deficiency of:
(A) Sodium
(B) Calcium
(C) Iodine
(D) Iron
Ans. (C) Iodine

19. The emission of which casuses global warming?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans. (A) Carbon dioxide

20. Who was adjudged player of the tournament by scoring most number of runs in the tournament in women's world cup cricket held recently:
(A) Jess Cameron
(B) Megan Schutt
(C) Anya Shrubsole
(D) Suzie Bates
Ans. (D) Suzie Bates

21. Who won the inaugural Hockey India League ended in Ranchi recently:
(A) Ranchi Rhinos
(B) Uttar Pradesh Wizards
(C) Delhi Wave Riders
(D) Mumbai magicians
Ans. (A) Ranchi Rhinos

22. FIFA-2014 world cup is proposed to be held in:
(A) Quatar
(B) Brazil
(C) Spain
(D) Russia
Ans. (B) Brazil

23. Wanchoo committee Dealt with:
(A) Direct Taxes
(B) Right to Information Reforms
(C) Agriculture Prices
(D) Parliamentary Reforms
Ans. (A) Direct Taxes

24. Kyoto Protocol is:
(A) An international agreement for extradition of foreign enemy
(B) An international agreement describing formula for conversion of foreign exchange
(C) An international agreement to reduce green house gases
(D) An international agreement to deal with International Terrorists organization
Ans. (C) An international agreement to reduce green house gases

25. India successfully completed its 101th space mission by launching Indo - French satellite SARAL recently. This satellite is for:
(A) Preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica
(B) Study the climate on Mars
(C) Oceanographic study
(D) None of these is true
Ans. (C) Oceanographic study

Mathematics:
01. Tarun travels a distance of 24km at 6 km/hr another distance of 24km at 8 km/hr and a third distance of 24 km at 12 km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey (in km/hr) is
(A) 8 2/3
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 7
Ans. (B) 8

02. Rohan lends 1000 in four parts. If he gets 8% interest on 2000, 7 1/2% on 4000 and 8 1/2% on 1400 what percent of interest must he get for the remainder if his average annual interest is 8.13%?
(A) 10%
(B) 9%
(C) 8%
(D) None of these
Ans. (B) 9%

03. A solid piece of iron is in the form of a cuboid of dimensions (49cmx33cmx24cm) is melted and moulded to form a solid sphere. The radius of the sphere is
(A) 23 cm
(B) 21 cm
(C) 19cm
(D) 25cm
Ans. (B) 21 cm

04. Twelve solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of base diameter 2 cm and height 16cm. The diameter of each sphere is:
(A) 4cm
(B) 3cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 6 cm
Ans. (C) 2 cm

05. Perimeter of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 484 cm². What is the radius of the circle?
(A) 14cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 7 cm
(D) 16 cm
Ans. (A) 14cm

06. Puneeta borrowed from Reena certain sum for two years at simple interest. Puneeta lent this sum to Venu at the same rate for two years compound interest. At the end of two years she received 110 as compound interest but paid 100 as simple interest. Find the sum and rate of interest:
(A) 250, rate 20% per annum
(B) 250, rate 25% per annum
(C) 250, rate 10% per annum
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) 250, rate 20% per annum

07. 13 chairs and 5 tables were brought for 8280. If the average cost of the table will be 1227, what is the average cost of a chair?
(A) 2145
(B) 165
(C) 175
(D) None of these
Ans. (B) 165

08. A man goes uphill with an average speed of 24 kmph and comes down with an average speed of 36 kmph. The distance travelled in both the cases being the same, The average speed (in km/hr) for the entire journey is:
(A) 30.8
(B) 32.8
(C) 28.8
(D) None of these
Ans. (C) 28.8

09. 40% of the employees of a certain company are men, and 75% of the men earn more than 25000 per year. If 45% of the company's employees earn more than 25000 per year, what fraction of the women employed by the company earn 25000 per year or less?
(A) 1/4
(B) 3/4
(C) 1/3
(D) 2/11
Ans. (B) 3/4

10. A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts in 3 years to 800 and in 4 years to 840 what is the percentage rate of interest?
(A) 6%
(B) 5%
(C) 4%
(D) 3%
Ans. (B) 5%

11. If the difference between simple and compound interest on some principal amount at 20% per annum for three years is 48, then the principal amount is:
(A) 390
(B) 375
(C) 450
(D) None of these
Ans. (B) 375

12. A rational number between 1/2 and 3/5 is:
(A) 4/7
(B) 3/5
(C) 2/5
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) 4/7

13. The curved surface of a cylinder is 264m². Its volume is 924m³. The height of the cylinder must be:
(A) 8 m
(B) 6 m
(C) 4 m
(D) None of these
Ans. (B) 6 m

14. If by selling 110 apples, the cost price of 120 apples is realized. The gain % is?
(A) 10 10/11%
(B) 9 1/9%
(C) 11 1/9%
(D) 9  1/11%
Ans. (D) 9  1/11%

15. If 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, in how many days can the same work be done by 6 men and 11 women?
(A) 15 days
(B) 13 1/2 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 18 days
Ans. (A) 15 days

16. Pujara has a certain average of runs for his 8 matches in Border Gavaskar Trophy. In the ninth match he scores 100 runs and thereby increases his average by 9 runs. His new average of runs is:
(A) 28
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 32
Ans. (A) 28

17. It costs 1 to photocopy a sheet of paper. However, 2% discount is allowed on all photocopies done after first 1000 sheets. How much will it cost to photocopy 5000 sheets of paper?
(A) 3920
(B) 4900
(C) 4920
(D) 3980
Ans. (C) 4920

DIRECTIONS (Question No 18 & 19) Answer the following questions on the basis of the information given below.
i. Trains A and B are travelling on the same route heading towards the same destination. Train B has already covered a distance of 220km before the train A started.
ii. The two trains meet each other after 11 hours after start of train A
iii. Had the trains been travelling towards each other (from a distance of 220 km) they would have met after one hour.
18. What is the speed of trains 'B' in kmph:
(A) 116
(B) 180
(C) 100
(D) None of these
Ans. (C) 100

19. What is the speed of trains 'A' in kmph:
(A) 118
(B) 80.5
(C) 102
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

DIRECTIONS: What approximate (you are not expected to calculate the exact value) value will come in place of the question mark(?) in following equation?
20. 384.996 x 15.001 + 44.99 = ?
(A) 5080
(B) 5820
(C) 5280
(D) 5420
Ans. (B) 5820

21. Three men or eight boys can do a piece of work in 17 days. How many days will two men and six boys together take to finish the same work?
(A) 12 days
(B) 17 days
(C) 11 days
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) 12 days

22. Vaibhav got a monthly increment of 12 percent of Pushpa's monthly salary. Pushpa's monthly salary is 7800. Vaibhav's monthly salary before increment was 6500. What amount will he earn in five months after his increment?
(A) 37.180
(B) 35.180
(C) 36.180
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) 37.180

23. The ratio of two numbers is 4:5. When the first is increased by 20% and the second is decreased by 20% the ratio of the resulting numbers is:
(A) 5:6
(B) 5:4
(C) 6:5
(D) 4:5
Ans. (C) 6:5

24. If the numerator of a fraction be increased by 12% and its denominator decreased by 2% the value of the fraction becomes 6/7. Thus, the original fraction is:
(A) 3/4
(B) 4/3
(C) 2/3
(D) None of these
Ans. (A) 3/4

25. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
239.99 / 8.0001 x 9.99 = ?
(A) 350
(B) 260
(C) 400
(D) 300
Ans. (D) 300

English:
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, identify the correct reported speech from the given alternatives.
01. He said, "I must go home at once."
(A) He said that he had to go home then
(B) He said that he must go home then and there
(C) He said that he must have gone home at once
(D) He said that he had to go home at once
Ans. (A) He said that he had to go home then

02. Miss Ragini said to me, "Put these pencil shavings in the dustbin."
(A) Miss Ragini said to me to put these pencil shavings in the dustbin
(B) Miss Ragini ordered me to put these pencil shavings in the dustbin
(C) Miss Ragini asked me to put those pencil shavings in the dustbin
(D) Miss Ragini told me to put those pencil shavings in the dustbin
Ans. (C) Miss Ragini asked me to put those pencil shavings in the dustbin

03. She said, "oh dear! I have just missed the bus.":
(A) She said with regret that she had just missed the bus
(B) She exclaimed that she has just missed the bus
(C) She regretted that she just missed the bus
(D) She narrated that she just missed the bus
Ans. (C) She regretted that she just missed the bus

DIRECTIONS: Fill in the blank with correct preposition
04. He invited all his friends............ tea
(A) On
(B) For
(C) To
(D) In
Ans. (C) To

05. Rita drove............ a red light.
(A) In
(B) Through
(C) From
(D) Among
Ans. (B) Through

06. Distribute the sweets equally............ four children.
(A) Among
(B) In
(C) Between
(D) Through
Ans. (A) Among

07. Identify the adverb in the following sentence.
He spoke well at the meeting last night.
(A) Last Night
(B) Meeting
(C) Well
(D) All of these
Ans. (C) Well

08. Identify which is not adverb from among following underlined words in the given sentences.
She sings pretty well. I do my work carefully. He is wise enough to understand the trick. The flower smells sweet.
(A) Enough
(B) Carefully
(C) Pretty
(D) Sweet
Ans. (D) Sweet

09. Given below is the sentence in active voice. Choose the correct sentence given in passive voice among the alternatives.

Ought you not to reveal the truth now?
(A) Should the truth need not be revealed by you then?
(B) Ought the truth not to be revealed by you now?
(C) Ought the truth not to be revealed by you then?
(D) Ought the truth need not be revealed by you now?
Ans. (B) Ought the truth not to be revealed by you now?

10. Choose the incorrect sentence among the following:
(A) By next December we shall have been living here for six years.
(B) I have been writing four letters since morning.
(C) At this time tomorrow we will be watching a film
(D) I have been standing here for hours.
Ans. (A) By next December we shall have been living here for six years.

11. Given below are four substitutions for the underlined part. Choose the correct alternative to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Make haste lest you should not be caught in the storm:
(A) You might be
(B) You could be
(C) You should be
(D) Otherwise you can be
Ans. (A) You might be

DIRECTIONS: In this section each sentence has three parts indicated by (A), (B) and (C). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error. If you find an error in any one of the parts (A), (B), (C) indicate your response by blackening the letter related to that part in the OMR sheet provided. If a sentence has no error, indicate this by blackening "D" which stands for no error. Error may belong to grammar usage.

12. Seldom we have been treated (A)/ in such a rude manner (B)/ by the police Personnel (C)/ No error (D)
Ans. No error

13. Some men are born great (A)/ some achieve greatness (B)/ and some had greatness thrust on them (C)/ No error (D)
Ans. some had greatness thrust on them

14. Beware of (A)/ a fair-weather friend (B)/ who is neither a friend need nor a friend indeed (C)/ No error (D).
Ans. who is neither a friend need nor a friend indeed

15. What shall be correct combination of two simple sentences into a complex sentence by using a noun clause?
Can you come? He asked me:
(A) He asked me to come
(B) He asked me if I could come
(C) He asked me whether I can come?
(D) He asked me whether I might come
Ans. (B) He asked me if I could come

16. Identify the nouns used both for singular and plural form:
(A) Sheep
(B) Wolf
(C) Axis
(D) Goat
Ans. (A) Sheep

DIRECTIONS: Fill the correct article
17. Ramesh's father is ____ M.P and Suresh's father is _______Member of Legislative Assembly.
(A) An, A
(B) An, An
(C) A, An
(D) An, The
Ans. (A) An, A

DIRECTIONS: Complete the sentence correctly
18. Ram is so proud of his position that he _________ his subordinates.
(A) Looks for
(B) Looks into
(C) Looks down upon
(D) Looks after
Ans. (C) Looks down upon

DIRECTIONS: Complete the sentence with correct adversative conjunction
19. Shruti ran fast ______ she missed the train
(A) But
(B) Nevertheless
(C) Yet
(D) Nonetheless
Ans. (A) But

DIRECTIONS: Choose the word which is similar or most nearly similar in meaning as the word given in bold and mark your answer.

20. Sagacious:
(A) Clever
(B) Strong
(C) Obstinate
(D) Ridiculous
Ans. (A) Clever

21. Curtly:
(A) Sadly
(B) Rudely
(C) Frankly
(D) Happily
Ans. (B) Rudely

22. Abbreviate:
(A) Extend
(B) Abridge
(C) Conclude
(D) Thwart
Ans. (B) Abridge

DIRECTIONS: Choose the word which is opposite in meaning as the word given in bold and mark your answer.

23. Indifference:
(A) Responsiveness
(B) Different
(C) Neutrality
(D) Sophistication
Ans. (A) Responsiveness

24. Exceptional:
(A) Formal
(B) Neutral
(C) Normal
(D) Traditional
Ans. (C) Normal

25. Tragic:
(A) Humorous
(B) Funny
(C) Light
(D) Comic
Ans. (D) Comic

APPSC Assistant Engineers, Assistant Motor Vehicles Inspectors, Observers (Non - Engineering) Exam G.S. Paper (Exam Held On: 16-06-2013)


Friday, June 14, 2013

AP MAHESH BANK RECRUITMENT OF CLERICAL POSTS

Applications are invited for the Clerical posts in Mahesh Bank, Hyderabad.

Post Details:
Clerical Posts


Qualification: 

Graduate in any discipline from a recognized university and adequate knowledge of operating computers in MS Office and Internet Usage. Etc.,

Website: www.apmaheshbank.com
Last Date of Online application: 25 June 2013

APSRTC Recruitment of Drivers in Guntur Region

Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (APSRTC) has issued notification for the recruitment of 144 Driver vacancies in Guntur Region.

Post Details: Driver
Total No. of Posts: 144


Qualification: Candidates must have H.P.M.V or H..G.V or H.T.V Driving Licenses.


Selection Process: 

Candidates will be selected based on the performance in interview and driving test.
Application fee: Rs.100/-
Last Date for Receipt of Applications: 22 June 2013

APSRTC RECRUITMENT OF DRIVERS

Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (APSRTC) has issued notification for the recruitment of 95 Driver vacancies in Prakasam Region.

Post Details:
Driver


Total No. of Posts: 95


Qualification:

 Candidates must possess H.P.M.V or H.G.V or Transport Vehicle licenses.
Application Fee: Rs.100/-
Last Date for Submission of Applications: 24 June 2013

Friday, June 7, 2013

LAWCET 2013 PAPER


A.P Mahesh Cooperative Urban Bank Limited Clerk-cum Cashier Recruitment

Applications are invited for the following posts:

Clerk-cum Cashier: 100 Posts
Qualifications:
 
Graduation in any discipline from a recognised university (The candidate should have passed all subjects in the First Attempt only) and adequate knowledge of operating computers in MS Office and Internet Usage. The candidates who are appearing final year degree examinations are also eligible to apply. However, their candidature will be considered subject to clearing the graduation exam in first attempt.

Application Fee: Rs. 500/-

How to Apply: Eligible candidates have to apply online through the Bank’s website only. No other means / mode of application are acceptable.

Important Dates:
  • Last date for submission of online application 25/06/2013.
  • Download of call letters for online examination 01.08.2013 to 11.08.2013
  • Tentative date of online examination 11.08.2013.
More details click here

Wednesday, May 29, 2013

RBI Assistants Recruitment

 RBI Assistants Recruitment Notification released for post of 525 jobs, this time RBI Assistant exam going to conduct Online .

RBI Assistants Recruitment 2013 Important dates :
Event Date 
Online registration Starts 30.05.2013
last date to apply online 20.06.2013
payment of fees in Online 30.05.2013 to 20.06.2013
Payment of fees in offline through challan (at branches ) 30.05.2013 to 24.06.2013

Number of jobs :  525 jobs

RBI Assistants 2013  Online exam Dates Tentatively :
20.07.2013 (Saturday )
21.07.2013 (Sunday )
27.07.2013 (Saturday )
28.07.2013 (Sunday )

Educational Qualification : Any graduation with minimum 50 % from Recognized University (pass for SC/ST/pwd candidates )

Age limit : minimum 18 years and Maximum 28 years .
Age relaxations As per rules

How to Apply : Apply through online visiting RBI Official website www.rbi.org.in
 
Official Notification and Exam syllabus /pattern details will Available here soon (30 may 2013 )

Monday, May 27, 2013

Dr. B.R. AMBEDKAR OPEN UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE EXAM - 2013


UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

1.    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.    Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)    In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer (C)

3.    Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    Geographical Feature        Region      
(a)    Abyssinian Plateau:            Arabia
(b)    Atlas Mountains:            North Western Africa
(c)    Guiana Highlands:        :    South Western Africa          
(d)    Okavango Basin:            Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.    The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.    The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.    At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.    Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.    across different species of plants
2.    from animals to plants
3.    from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.    The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.    The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.   
2.    As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.    The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only-
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.    Consider the following:
1.    Star tortoise
2.    Monitor lizard
3.    Pygmy hog
4.    Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.    Arsenic
2.    Sorbitol
3.    Fluoride
4.    Formaldehyde
5.    Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2, 4 and 5 only
(c)    1, 3 and 5 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.    With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)    directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.    Consider the following animals:
1.    Sea cow
2.    Sea-horse
3.    Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.    If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.    take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.    be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.    speak in the Lok Sabha
4.    vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 4
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.    Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.    Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.    Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)    the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)    the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)    latitudinal position of the place
(d)    revolution  of the  earth  on  a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.    It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.    It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.    The land  slopes  to  the  west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

16.    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)    is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)    is  found in  freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)    exists as groundwater
(d)    exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.    Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve    : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake    Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :    Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

18.    Consider the following:
1.    Electromagnetic radiation
2.    Geothermal energy
3.    Gravitational force
4.    Plate movements
5.    Rotation of the earth
6.    Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)    1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.    National Development Council
2.    Planning Commission
3.    Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)    writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)


21.    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)    with   the   consent   of  all   the States
(b)    with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)    with the consent of the States concerned
(d)    without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.    In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)    insects and fungi
(b)    limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)    water limits and fire
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

23.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)    Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24.  Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)    Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)    low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)    Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)    None to the above
Answer (A)

25.    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)    To provide self- governance
(b)    To recognize traditional rights
(c)    To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)


26.    Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)    State Forest Department
(b)    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)    Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.    Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)    bacteria
(b)    protozoa
(c)    moulds
(d)    viruses
Answer (C)

28.    'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)    None of the above
Answer (B)

29.    Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.    Beryllium
2.    Cadmium
3.    Chromium
4.    Heptachlor
5.    Mercury
6.    Lead
7.    Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)    1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)    carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)    carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)    ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)    nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.    With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.    A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.    Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.    A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
    National Park    River flowing through the Park
1.    Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.    Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.    Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    3 only
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (D)

33.    Consider the following organisms:
1.    Agaricus
2.    Nostoc
3.    Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    3 only
Answer (C)

34.    Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.    Excretion of urea by animals
2.    Burning of coal by man
3.    Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.    In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.        Tamil Nadu
2.         Kerala
3.    Karnataka
4.    Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)    There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)    The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)    The complete annihilation of self
(c)    A state of bliss and rest
(d)    A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)    Fundamental Rights
(b)    Fundamental Duties
(c)    Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)    Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)    there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)    the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.    Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)    Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)    Cripps Proposals
(c)    Simon Commission Report
(d)    Wavell Plan
Answer (B)


41.    The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)    all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)    goods exported from a country during a year
(c)    economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)    capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.    The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.    liquidity of assets
2.    branch expansion
3.    merger of banks
4.    winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 4 only
(b)    2, 3 and 4 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.    An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)    market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)    Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)    Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)    economic development
(b)    redemption of public debt
(c)    adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.    They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.    They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.    They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.    Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.    Chikungunya
2.    Hepatitis B
3.    HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)        1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.    The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.    Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.    Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.    Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)    NO2, O3 and     peroxyaceryl nitrate in the    presence of sunlight
(b)    CO, O2 and     peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the    presence    of
(c)    CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)    high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.    Consider the following minerals:
1.    Calcium
2.    Iron
3.    Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.    consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.    scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.    examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.    Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.    Dadu Dayal
2.    Guru Nanak
3.    Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)    1 and 3
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.    Virus
2.    Fungi
3.    Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.    The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)    warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)    rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)    warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)    continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.    Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.    Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.    Coexistence of a large number of species
3.    Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.    Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.    Foreign Loans
2.    Foreign Direct Investment
3.    Private Remittances
4.    Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    1, 2 and 4
(c)    2, 3 and 4
(d)    1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.    Consider the following historical places:
1.    Ajanta Caves
2.    Lepakshi Temple
3.    Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

58.    With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the    following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.    Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.    Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any  exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.    Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.    Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.    Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.    Thermal difference between land and water
2.    Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.    Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.    Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)


61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.    High ash content
2.    Low sulphur content
3.    Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.    They are generally red in colour.
2.    They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.    They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.    Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    2, 3 and 4
(c)    1 and 4
(d)    2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.    Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.    Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

64.    Consider the following crops:
1.    Cotton
2.    Groundnut
3.    Rice
4.    Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)    1 and 4
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
    The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    (a)    African Savannah
    (b)    Central Asian Steppe
    (c)    North American Prairie
    (d)    Siberian Tundra
    Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
    1.    Inflation benefits the debtors.
    2.    Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer (A)

67.    Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)    large number of people remain unemployed
(b)    alternative employment is not available
(c)    marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)    productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.    The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.    The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.    National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.    The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.    The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.    While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.    With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.    Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.    It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.    meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.    lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.    violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.    Consider the following pairs:
    Tribe        State
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 4 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.    Demand deposits with the banks
2.    Time deposits with the banks
3.    Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)    1-4-3-2
(b)    4-3-2-1
(c)    2-3-1-4
(d)    4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.    In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)    borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)    lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)    purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)     None of the above
Answer (C)

76.    Priority Sector Lending by banks in
    India constitutes the lending to
(a)    agriculture
(b)    micro and small enterprises
(c)    weaker sections
(d)    All of the above
Answer (D)

77.    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)    Engineering
(b)    Paper and pulp
(c)    Textiles
(d)    Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)    Promoting skill development
(b)    Introducing more social security schemes
(c)    Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)    Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.    In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)    Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)    Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)    A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.    Annie Besant was
1.    responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.    the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.    once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)


81.    The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)    imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)    imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)    removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)    removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.    A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.    an increase in the money supply
2.    a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.    an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.    Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)    Repayment of public debt
(b)    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)    Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.    Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)    a fall in the level of prices
(b)    an increase in the rate of interest
(c)    a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)    an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)    exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)    concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)    rate of respiration is decreased
(d)    there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.    Consider the following fauna of India:
1.    Gharial
2.    Leatherback turth
3.    Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (C)

89.    Consider the following phenomena:
1.    Size of the sun at dusk
2.    Colour of the sun at dawn
3.    Moon being visible at dawn
4.    Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.    Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    3, 4 and 5
(c)    1, 2 and 4
(d)    2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.    Dispersion
2.    Refraction
3.    Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)    the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)    most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)    most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)    leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.    Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)    there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)    there is population growth in X
(c)    there is capital formation in X
(d)    the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.    Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.    Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.    Hard and waxy leaves
2.    Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.    Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)    Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)    Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.    It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.    It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.    It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.    Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.    resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.    tolerate extremes of pH
3.    resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.    The Prime Minister
2.    The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.    Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.    Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1, 3 and 4 only
(c)    2 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)    total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)    sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)    sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)    money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.    Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.    Regional Rural Banks
2.    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.    Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)