Part–I
General Awareness
Section ‘A’
(For Science Students only)
(Exam Held on 23-05-2009)
1. In fog, we are not able to see objects at a distance, although fog contains fine drops of water suspended in air and water is transparent. This is because—
(A) the light rays suffer total internal reflection
(B) most of the light is absorbed by the fog
(C) most of the light is scattered
(D) fog affects our vision adver-sely
2. Which of the following state-ments regarding the consequen-ces of the movement of the earth is not correct ?
(A) The rotation of the earth causes variation in the duration of day and night
(B) The revolution of the earth around the sun is the cause of the change of seasons
(C) The rotation of the earth is the cause of day and night
3. If a ship has to travel the shortest route, it must follow—
(A) Latitudes
(B) Streams
(C) Along a great circle
(D) Longitudes
4. The auto shut off in electric equipment works on the principle of the—
(A) thermal effect
(B) optical effect
(C) diode
(D) Both (A) and (B)
5. For which of the following can ‘mode’ be used ?
(A) The size of clothes
(B) The size of shoes
(C) Most frequently seen cable channels
(D) All of the above
6. Diesel engines are heavier than petrol engines because—
(A) diesel is heavier
(B) diesel generates more power
(C) diesel is used in heavy vehicles
(D) diesel was invented earlier
7. Two unbiased coins are tossed in the air and both of them land with heads down. What are the chances that, on the next toss, atleast one will land with head upwards ?
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 33%
8. Cell phones work on the principle of—
(A) sound waves
(B) magnetic waves
(C) ultrasonic waves
(D) electromagnetic waves
9. If there was no friction, which of the following would become impossible ?
(A) Walking on the road
(B) Using a toothpick
(C) Using a pulley
(D) All of the above
10. For an electron moving in ‘s’ orbital, the total angular momen-tum is—
(A) 1/2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 0
11. Which of the following disorder of the eye is treated by the use of cylinderical lenses ?
(A) Myopia
(B) Hypermetropia
(C) Cataract
(D) Astigmatism
12. What quantity of oxygen (O2) contains the same number of molecules as 36·0 g of water ?
(A) 64.0 g (B) 32.0 g
(C) 16.0 g (D) 18 g
13. In honour of which eminent Indian Scientist, is the National Science Day celebrated in India ?
(A) J. C. Bose
(B) C. V. Raman
(C) S. Ramanujan
(D) H. J. Bhabha
14. Which of the following causes reduction in the ozone layer ?
(A) Rising sea temperature
(B) Use of specific refrigerants
(C) Smog in the cities
(D) Cutting trees
15. The colours corresponding to the shortest and longest wavelength are—
(A) red and green
(B) green and red
(C) red and violet
(D) violet and red
16. When salt is dissolved in water, the salt solution will have—
(A) a lower boiling point than that of pure water
(B) a higher boiling point than that of pure water
(C) no change in the boiling point
(D) a fluctuating boiling point
17. The ‘Origin of Species’ written by Charles Darwin appeared first about—
(A) 100 years ago
(B) 150 years ago
(C) 200 years ago
(D) 250 years ago
18. The difference between tap water and rain water is due to—
(A) the presence of nitrates in rain water
(B) the presence of nitrates in tap water
(C) the presence of impurity in tap water
(D) the presence of sulphates in rain water
19. Among air, vacuum, water and glass, the speed of light is—
(A) the same in all mediums
(B) fastest in air
(C) fastest in vacuum
(D) the same in air and vacuum
20. Between a dry, pen size cell and a big torch, of which cell is the voltage more ?
(A) Both are the same
(B) The torch cell is more
(C) The pen size cell is more
(D) None of the above
21. A cassette tape and a CD are both used for sound recording. On what principle do they work ?
(A) Both work on the same principle
(B) The cassette works on soft laser and the CD on magnetic field
(C) The cassette works on magnetic field and the CD on soft laser
(D) The cassette works on soft magnetic field and the CD on strong magnetic field
22. Capillary action is due to :
(A) air pressure
(B) surface tension
(C) due to both air pressure and surface tension
(D) the movement of air
23. Decimals can also be represen-ted as—
(A) integers
(B) fractions
(C) natural numbers
(D) odd numbers
24. Vaccination helps in controlling diseases as it—
(A) kills the germs which cause disease
(B) develops resistance to attack
(C) prevents contact with germs
(D) activates germs causing the disease
25. The sun’s energy is produced as a result of—
(A) explosion
(B) fission
(C) thermonuclear fusion
(D) combustion
26. The human body adopts to living at high altitudes by producing—
(A) more white blood cells
(B) more red blood cells
(C) fewer white blood cells
(D) fewer red blood cells
27. The injection of large quantities of distilled water into a person’s veins would cause many of the red blood cells to—
(A) shrink
(B) form new cells
(C) swell and burst
(D) carry more oxygen
28. The dissolved carbondioxide in rainwater makes it acidic. What happens to the pH of rain water when it falls upon a limestone rock ?
(A) pH rises from 7 to 10
(B) pH falls from 5 to 3
(C) pH rises from 5 to 8
(D) pH remains at 7
29. Which of the following is likely to consist of one element ?
(A) A silverspoon
(B) A bronze statue
(C) A brass plate
(D) A steel tumbler
30. When water is added to baking powder, the resultant solution formed would be—
(A) alkaline
(B) acidic
(C) neutral
(D) acidic as well as alkaline
31. A solution conducting electric current confirms that the solu-tion—
(A) has a variable boiling point
(B) is a good oxidising agent
(C) is a good reducing agent
(D) contains ions
32. If a magnet is divided into two pieces—
(A) the magnet will loose its magnetic power
(B) both the pieces will become independent magnets
(C) one piece will behave like a North pole and the other like a South pole
(D) the magnetic power of the magnet will increase
33. The fuel used in nuclear reactors is—
(A) hydrogen
(B) liquid nitrogen
(C) uranium
(D) carbon isotope
34. Our blood is—
(A) neutral in nature
(B) slightly alkaline in nature
(C) highly alkaline in nature
(D) slightly acidic in nature
35. Paper is recyclable because—
(A) paper is coarse
(B) paper is fine
(C) paper burns on heating
(D) None of the above
36. Most of the glucose in the human blood is transported by the—
(A) red blood cells
(B) plasma
(C) platelets
(D) white blood cells
37. Nights are cool when—
(A) the nights are cloudy and the days are clear
(B) the nights are clear and the days are cloudy
(C) both the nights and the days are cloudy
(D) both the nights and the days are clear
38. The first life came on earth—
(A) in water
(B) on land
(C) in air
(D) on the mountain
39. Which of the following animals was not known to the Indus Valley Civilization ?
(A) Bull (B) Horse
(C) Elephant (D) Giraffe
40. Aurora borealis is—
(A) a medical term for boric powder
(B) red and green lights in the sky near the North pole by electrical radiation
(C) a chemical
(D) a Russian master craftsman
Section ‘B’
(For Humanities and Social Science Students only)
1. Which is the largest airport in the world ?
(A) Singapore Airport
(B) The Kaulalumpur Interna-tional Airport
(C) Heathrow at London
(D) The King Khalid airport at Saudi Arabia
2. Prithvi is a—
(A) Surface-to-air missile
(B) Surface-to-surface missile
(C) Air-to-surface missile
(D) Air-to-air missile
3. At the end of 2001, the Indian government approved the culti-vation of B. T. Cotton. Which multinational company is the major beneficiary of this deci-sion ?
(A) Cargil (B) BASF
(C) Monsanto (D) All of these
4. The World Literacy Day is celebrated on—
(A) 8th September
(B) 5th June
(C) 15th August
(D) 5th September
5. Which was the first University to be established in the world ?
(A) Harvard University
(B) Nalanda University
(C) Oxford University
(D) None of these
6. The speed of light will be mini-mum while passing through—
(A) glass (B) vacuum
(C) air (D) water
7. Which of the following chemicals has been recently allowed by the government of India to be mixed with petrol ?
(A) Methanol (B) Ethanol
(C) Kerosene (D) Butanol
8. What is the name of the instru-ment used to measure blood pressure ?
(A) Barometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Sphygmomanometre
9. Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got indepen-dence ?
(A) Attlee (B) Churchill
(C) Thatcher (D) Wilson
10. Which, among the following, would you consider a historical source ?
(A) Numismatics
(B) Epigraphs
(C) Rock paintings
(D) Census reports
11. What is not correct about a soft loan ?
1. It is a loan bearing no rate of interest
2. It has an interest rate which is above the true cost of the capital lent
3. The world bank gives soft loans to developing coun-tries for long-term capital projects
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
12. Which is the only historical monument which can be seen by the naked eyes from the moon ?
(A) The Leaning Tower of Pisa
(B) The Pyramids of Egypt
(C) The Statue of Liberty, New York
(D) The Great Wall of China
13. Formal services of Credit do not include—
(A) Self-help groups
(B) Cooperatives
(C) Employers
(D) L. I. C.
14. The most common route for investments by MNCs in coun-tries around the world is to—
1. Set up new factories
2. Buy existing local companies
3. Form partnerships with local companies
4. Invest in companies with low turn over
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
15. How many faces are there in an octahedron ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 12
16. Night-blindness is caused by lack of which vitamin ?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin D
17. The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere is—
(A) Argon (B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Krypton
18. The breadth of the railway broadgauge is approximately—
(A) 2·00 m (B) 1·88 m
(C) 1·67 m (D) 1·33 m
19. Which is the richest soil among the following ?
(A) Black soil
(B) Red soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D) Alluvial soil
20. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to the—
(A) shape of earth
(B) revolution of earth around the sun
(C) rotation of earth on its axis
(D) movements of the sun
21. A person of which of the follo-wing blood group can receive blood of any group ?
(A) A (B) AB
(C) B (D) O
22. Evergreen type of forests are found in—
(A) Equatorial climate
(B) Monsoon climatic region
(C) Desert regions
(D) Mediterranean region
23. What is the other name for River Gangas ?
(A) Sapthanadi
(B) Bhageerathi
(C) Savitri
(D) Bhadravati
24. The earth is—
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate spheroid
(D) Pralate spheroid
25. Which of the following set can not enter into the list of funda-mental quantities in any system of units ?
(A) Length, mass and velocity
(B) Length, time and velocity
(C) Mass, time and velocity
(D) Length, time and mass
26. Which of the following is/are the main agents of soil erosion ?
(A) Wind and water
(B) Rocks
(C) Sand
(D) High temperature and humi-dity
27. Who is the minister of agri-culture of India ?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Ram Vilas Paswan
(C) Shiv Raj Patil
(D) None of these
28. Monsoon is caused by—
(A) Revolution of earth
(B) Movement of clouds
(C) Seasonal reversal of the winds
(D) Larger change in amplitude of seasonal cycle of land tempe-rature
29. Which is the last letter of the Greek alphabet ?
(A) Omega (B) Sigma
(C) Zeta (D) Chi
30. Which is the birth place of Hitler ?
(A) Germany (B) Hungary
(C) Austria (D) France
31. Who elects President of India ?
(A) Lock Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) People of India
(D) Parliament and State Assem-blies
32. Which country is called the ‘Land of Cakes’ ?
(A) Britain (B) Spain
(C) France (D) Scotland
33. Which of the following books is not written by Kalidas ?
(A) Kathasaritsagar
(B) Meghdutam
(C) Raghuvansham
(D) Pushpavan Vikasam
34. In India, the chief minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential elections if—
(A) he himself is a candidate
(B) he is yet to prove his majo-rity in the State legislature
(C) he is a member of the upper house of the State legislature
(D) he is a caretaker Chief minister
35. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the house ?
(A) Whenever he desires
(B) Whenever the house desires
(C) In the event of equality of votes
(D) Whenever his party directs
36. Which of the following is not a cash crop ?
(A) Jute (B) Paddy
(C) Cashewnut (D) Rubber
37. Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the Bin Laden crisis, especially for having carried out the broadcast of Osama Bin Laden to audiences in West Asia ?
(A) Star Asia
(B) B. B. C. Asia
(C) Al Jazeera
(D) Khaleed Times
38. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of—
(A) Nepal (B) U. K.
(C) Spain (D) Japan
39. Who was Karl Marx’s main colla-borator on his famous works ?
(A) V. I. Lenin
(B) Max Weber
(C) Fredrick Engels
(D) Joseph Stalin
40. Which is the first Asian country to host the Commonwealth Games ?
(A) South Korea (B) Japan
(C) Malaysia (D) China
Part–II
Intelligence Test
Directions—(Q. 41–44) These questions are based on the following six statements. Read them carefully and respond by choosing the appro-priate alternative.
All G’s are H’s.
All G’s are J’s or K’s.
All J’s and K’s are G’s.
All L’s are K’s.
All N’s are M’s.
No M’s are G’s.
41. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated ?
(A) No M’s are H’s.
(B) No M’s that are not N’s are H’s
(C) Some M’s are H’s
(D) No N’s are G’s.
42. Which of the following is incon-sistent with one or more of the conditions ?
(A) All H’s are G’s
(B) Some H’s are both M’s and G’s
(C) No M’s are H’s
(D) All M’s are H’s
43. The statement “No L’s are J’s” is—
1. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
2. Consistent with but not deducible from the condi-tions
3. Deducible from the stated conditions to gether with the additional statement “No J’s are K’s”
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
44. If no P’s are K’s, which of the following must be true ?
(A) All P’s are J’s
(B) No P is a G
(C) No P is an H
(D) If any P is a G, it is a J.
Directions—(Q. 45–47) Read the following questions carefully and answer these question.
At a formal dinner for eight, the host and the hostess are seated at opposite ends of a rectangular table with 3 persons seated along the other two sides. Each man must be seated next to atleast one woman and vice versa. If M1, M2, M3, M4 are four men and W1, W2, W3, W4 are the women and they are seated in the manner that—
M1 sits opposite W1, who is not the hostess.
M2 has a women on his right and its opposite a woman
W2 is at the hostess’s right, next to M3
One person is seated between W3 and W4
45. The eighth person present, M4, must be—
1. the host
2. seated to W1’s right
3. seated opposite W4
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
46. If each person is placed directly opposite his/her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married ?
(A) M2 and W2 (B) W3 and M3
(C) M3 and W4 (D) M4 and W2
47. Which person is not seated next to the person of the same sex ?
(A) M1 (B) W3
(C) W4 (D) W1
48. Which of the following set of letters sequentially put in the respective blanks gives it a recognizable pattern ?
AB–ACDAA–AACDAABAA–DAABAAC–A
(A) ABCD (B) AACD
(C) ACDB (D) BCDA
49. Which of the following would be the next term in the following series ?
1, 5, 11, 19, 29, 41
(A) 54 (B) 55
(C) 56 (D) 57
50. If in a certain code AWARE-NESS is written as DZDUHQ-HVV, the same code KNOWLE-DGE would be written as—
(A) NQRZPHGJH
(B) NQRZOHGJI
(C) NQRZOHGJH
(D) NQRZOHGIH
51. Rekha is standing facing the rising sun as it surfaces up from the horizon. She moves 15 metre to her right, turns left and moves 10 metre, turns right and moves 10 metre, turns right and moves 20 metre and finally turns right and moves 25 metres. She, in her present position, is—
(A) 15 metre South to her initial position
(B) 10 metre East to her initial position
(C) 15 metre North to her initial position
(D) 10 metre West to her initial position
52. The rotation undergone by the minute hand of a clock as it transverses a distance of 255 minutes is—
(A) 1530 degrees
(B) 90 degrees
(C) 810 degrees
(D) 450 degrees
53. In a group of 15, 7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek and 3 have not studied either. How many of these have studied both Latin and Greek ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
54. If Dec. 2, 2008 was Tuesday, the day on the 217th day after Dec. 2, 2008 would be—
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
55. Which of the following is different from the rest ?
(A) 3, 9, 27, 81
(B) 2, 4, 8, 16
(C) 4, 16, 64, 256
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
56. The triangle formed by joining the midpoints of a given triangle will have area equal to—
(A) one-fourth of the given triangle
(B) one-eighth of the given triangle
(C) one-third of the given triangle
(D) nothing definite can be said
57. Which of the following is not a correct sequence ?
(A) Ore, iron, bars, grill, cage
(B) Water, electricity, refrigera-tor, compressor, cooling
(C) Breeding, egg, larva, pupa, insect
(D) Seed, plant, grain, flour, bread
58. A, B, C, D and E are five boys up on a ladder. B is 14 steps above ground and 21 steps below C. D is 5 steps below C and 11 steps above A. E is 4 steps above ground and 15 steps below A. In such a situation, the boy middle most in position is—
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
Directions—(Q. 59–63) Identify the diagram that correctly represents the relationship mentioned in the questions.
59. Tigers, Rabbits and animals—
60. Clerks, Government employees and Educated persons—
61. Doctors, Cats and Human Beings—
62. Bananas, Apples and Fruits—
63. Girls, Students and Athletes—
Directions—(Q. 64 and 65) Choose the word from the four options that has the same relationship with the third word in the question, as the second has with the first.
64. Book : Read :: Pen : ………
(A) Publisher (B) Ink
(C) Stationery (D) Write
65. Water : Wet :: Air : …………….
(A) Pressure (B) Dry
(C) Blow (D) Flow
Directions—Study the graph given below and answer question numbers 66 to 70.
Number of Distinction-holder Students
66. Which class has the maximum number of distinction-holders ?
(A) B (B) E
(C) D (D) F
67. Which class has the minimum number of distinction-holders ?
(A) C (B) D
(C) E (D) F
68. If rank I was to be given to the class which has the maximum number of distinction-holders, which class would have rank IV ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
69. Which classes have more than 10, but less than 30 distinctions ?
(A) A and C (B) C and D
(C) A and B (D) B, C and D
70. Which class has exactly half the number of distinctions of the class having the maximum number of distinctions ?
(A) B (B) A
(C) F (D) D
Part–III
Teaching Aptitude
Directions—Given below are twenty items. Each item has four alternatives. As such there are no right or wrong answers. They are mere opinions or different ways of thinking, feeling about or tackling a situation. Every alternative is right for someone or the other, as people may have different viewpoints. Choose according to your immediate and first feeling, the alternative that impresses you most.
71. Which of the following can be taken as a reflection of meaning-ful learning ?
(A) A good score in the exami-nation
(B) A high degree of retention
(C) The capability of transfer-ring/using learning in different situations
(D) The ability to recall as and when needed
72. The most important thing for a student to gain a better insight in the subject is/are—
(A) the notes given by the subject teacher in the class
(B) the discussion facilitated by the teacher and held by the students for comprehending various aspects of the topic under reference
(C) the source material arran-ged by the teacher for the students
(D) the scholarship of the teacher
73. Schools should arrange co-curri-cular activities for the students, because—
(A) curricular experiences are incomplete without supplements
(B) interplay of curricular and co-curricular experiences gives a better insight into the content and its context
(C) everybody wants co-curricular activities these days
(D) co-curricular activities make the school’s program attractive.
74. You are teaching in your class and it is almost the end of your session. A child of your class comes late and seeks your permission to enter the class. Being a good teacher, you will—
(A) not permit the child, as it makes little sense coming to class so late
(B) get annoyed, as you are disturbed
(C) ask the child to explain his/her position before you take an appropriate decision
(D) allow him/her to enter and ask him/her the reasons for being so late when the class gets over
75. You enter your regular class to discover the children not in a mood to study that particular day. You will—
(A) value the child’s precious time and world, therefore, teach as per your plan
(B) feel disturbed seeing the relectance of the children to study
(C) ask the children to mend their ways
(D) allow students the freedom to come up with what they want and gradually connect them to your plan
76. The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching—
(A) Studies problem of student behaviour
(B) Compares different types of tests
(C) Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(D) Cannot deal with children effectively
77. Find the odd one out—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Trace
(D) Remembering
78. Motivation should be followed by—
(A) Reward
(B) Reproof
(C) Knowledge of result
(D) Incentive
79. Learning which involves motor organ is called—
(A) Sensory learning
(B) Motor learning
(C) Verbal learning
(D) Sensory motor learning
80. Which of the following is an audio-visual aid ?
(A) Radio
(B) Tape-recorder
(C) Television
(D) Projector
81. Do the children of intelligent parents always shine in studies ?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Psychology
(D) It depends on God
82. Children’s fantasy reflects their—
(A) Love for imagination
(B) Inherent talent
(C) Age-specific traits
(D) Hidden frustrations
83. I prefer teaching young children because—
(A) I love playing with them
(B) It is easy to manage them
(C) It does not take extra read-ing on my part
(D) This is the best time to develop values and skills
84. Today’s parents exert a lot of pressure for achievement on their children as—
(A) they want to fulfil their dreams through their children
(B) they are scared about their children’s future
(C) the world is getting compe-titive everyday
(D) social status is gained only through good grades
85. An effective teacher—
(A) can manage his/her class well
(B) knows his/her subject very well
(C) cares for his/her students
(D) helps his/her students to be authentic learners
86. One learns best in a classroom where—
(A) every child gets a chance to explore
(B) the teacher does not give punishment
(C) there is no fixed curriculum
(D) there is no, threat of examination
87. The school and community should work together as—
(A) the school is an integral part of the community
(B) the community provides resources for learning
(C) the community helps in understanding the diverse nature of the students
(D) children learn to cooperate with one another
88. Hyperactive children—
(A) need special attention in the classroom
(B) need a separate classroom
(C) need special teachers
(D) need a special curriculum
89. A child’s potential for creativity is reflected in his/her—
(A) classroom discussion
(B) achievement scores
(C) out-of-the box thinking
(D) drawing and painting
90. Teaching is also a learning activity for teachers as—
(A) it develops an in depth understanding of a discipline
(B) teachers need to do action research
(C) teachers learn a lot from their students
(D) teaching is a process, not a product
Part–IV
Comprehension Test
(For English Medium Students only)
Directions—(Q. 91–96) Indicate the correct option for the following—
91. A moral tale, with animals as characters—
(A) legend
(B) myth
(C) fable
(D) None of the above
92. Bringing about a gentle death in case of incurable and painful diseases—
(A) immoculation
(B) euthanasier
(C) respite
(D) restitude
93. Wreath of bay leaves as an emblem of victory—
(A) lark (B) laurel
(C) laureate (D) palm
94. Attentive to formality or etiquette—
(A) punctilio
(B) punctilious
(C) punctual
(D) attention giver
95. The point that you have raised has no bearing on the subject under discussion—
(A) no relation to
(B) not affected by
(C) no impact on
(D) no dependance on
96. Some people feel that commu-nism is on its last leg now—
(A) about to revive
(B) about to collapse
(C) about to despair
(D) None of the above
Directions—(Q. 97–106) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow—
Discrimination implies that there is a preference for some or a preju-dice towards others. Wise teachers examine how to provide classroom systems that treat students equally.
In doing so, they may find that equal treatment results from unequal interpretations of rules. The expecta-tion for all children to stay in their seats and not wander around the room may be an unfair expectation for some. In getting to know students well, teachers can come to know what instructional contexts are tolerable, possible and desirable for various individuals. In knowing themselves well, teachers know what alterations in their own preferred style of teach-ing will be necessary to accommodate different children.
97. Discrimination involves—
(A) favouritism
(B) preconceived opinion
(C) partiality
(D) All of the above
98. “Equal treatment results from unequal interpretation of rules” means—
(A) biased teachers can inter-pret rules in any way
(B) only rules that involve safety can be unilateral
(C) rules ought not to have singular interpretation
(D) None of the above
99. According to the passage, a teacher must—
(A) Know his/her lessons well
(B) Know himself/herself well
(C) None of these
(D) Both (A) and (B)
100. “The expectation for all children to stay in their seats and not wander around the room may be an unfair practice for some” means—
(A) it is expected that all children must stay in their seats
(B) it is expected that all child-ren will wander in the classroom
(C) the expectation that all children will display similar behaviour
(D) None of the above
101. According to the passage, teachers need to be—
(A) Considerate
(B) Fair
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
102. The passage espouses that wise teachers—
(A) check the veracity of the student’s statements
(B) are not indifferent to students
(C) are tolerant of the student’s mischief
(D) follow their favoured styles of teaching
103. ‘Unequal’ refers to—
(A) unfair (B) different
(C) fair (D) unilateral
104. ‘Alterations’ refers to—
(A) choices
(B) changes
(C) options
(D) None of the above
105. The author wants the teaches to be—
(A) wise and tolerant
(B) accommodating and focus-sed
(C) fair and unbiased
(D) All of the above
106. ‘Accommodate’ in the passage refers to—
(A) reconcile (B) serve
(C) harmonize (D) oblige
Directions—(Q. 107–116) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow—
Once, the word man meant ‘person’ or ‘human being’. It was like the Latin word ‘homo’, a member of the human species, not an adult male of the species. But, man has, gradually, become more specific in meaning and is now a synonym for an adult male human being only. In the words of a popular dictionary for children, “A boy grows up to be a man. Father and Uncle George are both men”. This is the meaning that native speakers understand because they hear man used in everyday speech in this way, since childhood.
Later, we learn that man has another generic meaning, but we do not accept it with the same certainity. Studies of college students and school children show that phrases such as economic man and political man or statements such as ‘man domestica-ted animals’ and ‘man is a dreamer’ create an image of male people only, not female people or male and female people together.
To go on using, in its former sense, a word whose meaning has changed, is unfair. The point is not that we should recognise a semantic change, but that, in order to be precise, in order to be understood, we must. Furthermore, only recently, have we become aware that conven-tial English usage, including the generic use of man and other masculine gender words, often hides the actions, the contributions and, sometimes, the very presence of women. We can refuse to accept this view if we want, but if we do, it is like teaching children that the Earth is flat. Continuing to use English in ways that have become misleading, is no different from misusing infor-mation.
107. The passage is about—
(A) using language to give correct information
(B) recognising that language is changing and use it appro-priately
(C) linguistic confusion arising from the change
(D) All of the above
108. The word ‘man’ means—
(A) person and adult male
(B) only person
(C) only adult male
(D) None of the above
109. To use ‘man’ as a generic term—
(A) leads to unnecessary con-fusion
(B) makes women seem less important
(C) is misleading
(D) All of the above
110. To use the term ‘man’ as it stands now is essential—
(A) as change in semantics must be recognised
(B) in order to communicate with exactitude
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) None of the above
111. According to the passage, school children and college students—
(A) understand ‘man’ as mean-ing person, both man or woman
(B) associate ‘man’ with only the masculine gender
(C) understands that ‘man’ means both men and women
(D) are confused as they cannot associate ‘man’ with masculine or feminine gender
112. The word Semantic in paragraph 3 refers to—
(A) gradual
(B) contextual
(C) contemporary
(D) meaning
113. ………….. is like teaching the children that the ‘earth is flat’.
(A) ignoring the confusion caused by the semantic change
(B) not following the convential English usage
(C) not recognising and adap-ting to the change in meaning
(D) misusing information
114. According to the writer, phrases such as ‘political man’ and ‘man as a dreamer’ are—
(A) confusing
(B) misleading
(C) archaic
(D) All of the above
115. ‘Generic’ refers to—
(A) characteristic of a class
(B) general
(C) characteristic of a genius
(D) None of the above
116. The writer advocates us to—
(A) stop using masculine-gen-der words, if they also refer to women
(B) use feminine gender words explicitly
(C) adapt to the changes in meanings of words
(D) avoid using ‘generic’ words
Directions—(Q. 117–120) Indi-cate the correct option that fits each blank.
117. The breeze ……………the forest fire and made it more dangerous.
(A) ignited (B) fanned
(C) lit (D) blew
118. Illiteracy is a great …………….to development.
(A) distraction
(B) impediment
(C) objection
(D) problem
119. The Prime Minister wanted to help …………… poverty.
(A) dwindle (B) reduce
(C) redress (D) diminish
120. The more our thoughts and actions are allied and ……………, the happier we grow.
(A) convergent
(B) integrated
(C) oscillated
(D) dexterous
Answers With Hints
Part-I
Section ‘A’
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D)
16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B)
26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D)
36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (B)
Section ‘B’
1. (D) The largest airport in the world is King Khalid Airport, Saudi Arabia with an stunning area as 780 km2, which is bigger than Bahrin.
2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (A)
7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (B)
12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (A)
17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (B)
22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A)
27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (D)
32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (B)
37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (C)
Part-II
For Q. 41–44
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (D) 44. (C)
For Q. 45–47
45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (D)
48. (A)ABACDA/AAACDA/ ABAA DA/ABAAC A
49. (B)
50. (C) As, Similarly,
| A D | K | N |
| W Z | N | Q |
| A D | O | R |
| R U | W | Z |
| E H | L | O |
| N Q | E | H |
| E H | D | G |
| S V | G | J |
| S V | E | H |
\ Finally she is 10 m west to her starting position.
52. (A) Rotation = ¥ 255
= 1530 degrees
53. (A)
7 – x + x + 8 – x + 3 = 15
x = 3
54. (B) No. of odd days in 217 = 0
\ Reqd. day will be Tuesday.
55. (D) In all rest, second term is the square of Ist term third term is cube of Ist and fourth term 4th power of Ist term.
56. (A)
∆DEF @ ∆ADF @ ∆BDE @ ∆CEF
\ ∆ DEF = of the given ∆ ABC
57. (B)
58. (A) From top to bottom C, D, A, B, E.
59. (A) 60. (D) 61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (A)
64. (D) As ‘book’ is used to ‘read’ similarly ‘pen’ is need to ‘write’.
65. (B) ‘Water’ is used to ‘wet’ a thing similarly ‘air’ is use to dry a thing.
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (B)
Part-III
71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (D)
76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (C)
86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (C) 90. (D)
Part-IV
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (A)
96. (B)
97. (D) As the opening paragraph states that discrimination implies preference for some i.e., favou-ritism; or prejudice i.e., preconceived opinion and partiality.
198. (C) The second paragraph implies that equal treatment to all students requires unequal interpretation of rules for different children or different interpretation of rules for different children.
199. (D) In getting to know their students well, the teachers should have the knowledge of instructional contexts i.e., knowledge of lessons and for knowing themselves well, the teachers should know the effect of changing their style of teaching.
100. (C) Since all children are inherently different from one another, so expecting them to display similar behaviour is not unfair practice.
101. (C) According to the passage, the teacher need to be both considerate and fair to treat students equally.
102. (B) Both option (A) and (C) are nowhere mentioned in the passage (D) is also contrary to the passage, as passage states that teachers should change their own preferred style of teaching to accommodate different children.
103. (B) For different children ‘unequal interpretation of rules’ means different interpretation for different children.
104. (B) ‘Alterations’ means changes in the preferred style of teach-ing.
105. (D) The author wants the teacher to have all these quali-ties.
106. (C) ‘Accommodate’ different children implies ‘harmonize’ different children.
107. (C)
108. (C) Third sentence of the first paragraph states that man …………… is now a synonym for an adult male.
109. (D) As a generic term ‘man’ meant person or human being but now it is a synonym for adult male human being only so all the options are correct.
110. (A) The term ‘man’ as it stands now is essential because change in semantics must be recog-nised in order to be precise and to be understood.
111. (B) Studies of college students and school children………. create an image of male people only.
112. (C) Semantic change as used in paragraph 3 refers to contem-porary change in language.
113. (C) Third paragraph states that we may refuse to accept …………. Earth is flat.
114. (D) Second paragraph says that phrases such as ‘political man’ and ‘man as a dreamer’ create an image of male people only.
115. (B) ‘Generic’ as used in the last paragraph means general.
116. (C) The writer advocates us to adapt to the changes in the use of the words.
117. (B) ‘Fanned’ means to inflame or provoke.
118. (B) ‘Impediment’ means ‘obstacle’ ‘hurdle or hindrance.’
119. (B) ‘Reduce’ is more appropriate in comparison to diminish as it means to help lessen.
120. (B) ‘Integrated’ goes well with allied, thoughts and action can not be dexterous, oscillated is grammatically incorrect and ‘convergent’ is contextually in appropriate.
Descriptive Test
Q. 1. Education is the progres-sive search of our own ignorance.
Ans. The word ‘Shiksha’ is originated from the Sanskrit term Shiksh, which has the meaning—‘to learn’. If we trace the equivalent term in English, it is called Education. The term education is also derived from Latin language. The derived word is ‘Educare’ which has the meaning of ‘to rear’ or ‘to develop’. While we think on the basic nature of these two terms, it is clear that they have the similarity as both of the words agreed upon the ‘process’ where a man on a child has gone under the continuous mechanism of learning which reflects that the person is going through the slate of continuous development. Thus the etymological meanings in both languages communicate us that education is a continuous process which takes place due to surprise mixed with ignorance, curiosity, feel-ings of anxiety etc. In turn all these constraints make us more and more sensitive to make better adjustments towards our own environment or extending learning mechanisms of coping for facing challenges of the universe. It is very clear, the first man on earth found it difficult for his survival and gradually he learnt the art of his survival on this planet by exploring food, water, and shelter for fulfilling his basic needs. This evolu-tionary process all of us are quite aware from the story of prehistoric man on earth. It is not only the story of survival of this unique species on earth but how he has overcome his ignorance merged with mysteries and faced the challenges and calamities of the nature. Only after the victory over this existential challenges, now he has established as the highly intelligent creature on earth who has the acumen to explore the planet for fighting his survival in a scientific manner.
Q. 2. The teacher is a gate keeper and you yourself take entry into it.
Ans. Generally when people make meaning from the term ‘Shiksha’, They give emphasis upon receiving of the knowledge. Some-times they overlap the meanings we get by the phrases ‘imparting of education’ and ‘imparting of know-ledge’. But it is misleading phrases because ‘education’ is treated as a process and the knowledge is the simple product of this process. A few person relate it further with acquiring of the skills. But in true sense educa-tion for the sake of knowledge acquisition is not true education untill and unless it is not following some values, ideals and norms of the society. Dr. Sarvpalli Radha Krishnan has mentioned in his book New Frontiers in East-West Philosophies of Education as.
“Education is not limited to the imparting of information or the training in skills. It has to give the educated a proper sense of values. Scientists and technologists are also citizens and so have a social respon-sibility to the community in which they live”. The modern education is treated as paedo-centric education. This education keeps child in central position and make all educational amenities in order to open the flood gates of educational experiences for children. This education emphasis is
on the liberty, freedom, potentialities and interests of the blooming children. The teacher, thus works only as a stage-setter, environment modulator, resource manager and remains in background. Such education nouri-shes the democratic principles to prompt democratic discipline in next generation. Acharya Vinoba Bhave one’s spoke on the issue as—“Teacher is just like a sentry who is there to open the gate of knowledge and explore on furnish the opportunities for students so that they can do experimentation and verification with it”.
Q. 3. Now-a-days the evaluation of examination should be conducted by different approach.
Ans. The evaluation system always remain a point of hot discus-sion in educational area. The educa-tional evaluation system is always remain an issue of severe criticism for its reliability, validity and credibility in general public. It can be sum-marised that the examination system of modern India itself stands to face the challenges about its account-ability and credibility. The major fault of this dilemma of evaluation system is also lying with its nature because the education is also treated as means as well as an our. It has polluted the whole system of examination and its evaluation.
Although a number of efforts had been carried out from time to time to negotiate these pitfalls in evaluation system and still the pro-cess of improvements and precision is going on. Recently UGC has instruc-ted all the Higher Education Insti-tutions to follow semester system at all levels and implement grading system to neutralize the humane errors and biases in it. The other major efforts which are worth men-tioning are here as under—
1. Exceed the number of External Examinations.
2. Implementation of Internal Continuous Evaluation System of Examinations.
3. Implementation of Semester System of Examination.
4. Implementation of Question Banks Based Examination System.
5. Follow the scaling and grading system of evaluation.
6. Implement criterion reference examination.
7. Applications of systems approach.
8. Application of computers in examination and evaluation.
All these practices of evaluation work as modern techniques of exami-nation and implemented by various boards of examinations and higher education institutions. Still to make an uniformity of examination/ evaluation system throughout the country, there is need of positive consensus based on research findings. Inspite of these efforts computer based evaluation has opened new possibilities in this field.
