CTET Paper 1 ( English Language 1 & 2 ) Exam Held On 29.01.2012

English Language 1
Direction - Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow ( Q. No.1-9) by selecting the most appropriate option . Our body is a wondrous mechanism and when subjected to unusual stress over a period of time, it adapts itself to deal more effectively with that stress. Therefore, when you exert your muscles against resistance, they forced to adapt and deal with this extraordinary workload, This is the principle of weight training, Strands of muscle fibres become thicker and stronger in response to the demands placed on them. One of the great merits of weight training is the strength of your heart. During weight training, your heart is forced to beat faster and stronger in order to pump sufficient blood to the muscles being worked. In time, your heart, like your body, will adapt to this extra-workload by becoming stronger and more efficient. Since your body needs a given amount of blood to perform its daily tasks, your heart will now need fewer beats to pump the same quantity of blood. Sounds good ? There's more. Your entire circulatory system is given a thorough workout every time you exercise, which increases its overall efficiency. Even the neural paths from your brain's command centers to each individual muscle become more effective , enabling easier recruitment of muscle fibres for carrying out physical tasks. In essence, your body becomes a well-oiled and finely-tuned piece of machinery. whirring along without any breakdown. In today's stress-filled world, you need all the help you can get.
1.	The principle of weight training is A) helping the body adapt to increased stress B) training muscles to exert more pressure C) disposing extra workload D) thickening of body through extra consumption
2.	Weight training makes the muscles A) become intense B) resist workload C) thicker and stronger D) become stranded
3.	During weight training, the heart pumps A) less blood B) more blood C) required blood D) an extraordinary amount of blood
4.	A stronger and more efficient heart A) beats faster and more often to pump blood B) needs fewer beats to pump the same amount of blood C) can rest longer, reducing its workload D) is assisted by muscles of the body
5.	When neural paths become more effective A) The brain functions at extraordinary speed B) the brain opens new pathways for communication C) the brain employs various muscles easily for physical tasks D) the muscles function effectively and independently
6.	What does the term 'well-oiled' in the passage denote ? A) Healthy B) Serviced C) Massaged D) Greased
7.	Which one fo the following is the most appropriate title for the passage ? A) Health is Wealth B) Stressbusting B) The Mechanics of Weight Training D) How to retain your health ?
8.	What does the above passage suggest ? A) We should carry out physical exercise as a routine B) Physical exercise is necessary occasionally C) We should ignore physical exercise D) We should subject our body to as much exercise as it can withstand
9.	The word 'wondrous' (first line ) is A) a verb B) a noun C) an adverb D) an adjective
Direction - Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow ( Q. No.10-15) by selecting the most appropriate option . NIGHT The sun descending in the west, The evening star does shine; The birds are silent in their nest, And I must seek for mine. The moon, like a flower, In heaven's high bower, With silent delight Sits and smiles on the night. Farewell, green fields and happy groves, Where flocks have took delight. Where lambs have nibbled, silent moves The feet of angels bright; Unseen they pour blessing, And joy without ceasing, On each bud and blossom, And each sleeping bosom. They look in every thoughtless nest, Where birds are covered warm; They visit caves of every beast, To keep them all from harm. If they see and weeping That should have been sleeping, They pour sleep on their head, And sit down by their bed.
10.	The evening star rises when A) it is down B) the sun descends in the west C) the birds leave their nests D) it is midnight
11.	Here,'bower' represents A) a bouquet of flowers B) a flower vase C) a potted plant D) a framework that supports climbing plants
12.	The poet compares moon to A) an evening star B) an angel C) a flower D) a bird in the nest
13.	The angels come down on earth to A) make people dance and have fun B) take blessing and joy C) spread moonlight D) give blessing and joy
14.	Birds' nest is described as 'thoughtless' because A) it is made without any thought B) the occupants are asleep without any care C) the angels are blessing the birds to be happy D) The birds are covered in the warmth of their nest
15.	The figure if speech used in the line 'In heaven's high bower' is A) Alliteration B) Smile C) Metaphor D Personification
Directions - Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option
16.	Scanning means darting over much of a text to search for A) The central idea B) the opinion of the author C) difficult words D) a specific item or piece of information that we wish to discover
17.	A 'sight word ' is a vocabulary item A) That the reader recognises and finds meaningful on sight without a complicated analysis B) that needs proper visual understanding of the context C) that is to be learned by heart D) that helps in judging the effectiveness of the author's style
18.	A good introduction to a text should be A) short and to the point B) telling the students anything that they can find out for themselves by reading the text C) a detailed explanation of the meaning of the text D) blocking the student's active involvement by the means of questing
19.	Which of the following is an important stage in the writing process ? A) Comprehension B) Editing C) Memorisation D) Calligraphy
20.	Curriculum is an educational programme which does not state A) The educational purpose of a programme B) The number of lessons to the taught in a term C) The means of evaluating whether the educational objectives have been achieved or not D) the content ( material etc.) teaching strategies and learning experiences which will be necessary to achieve this purpose
21.	We use real objects to teach young learners new words because A) it helps learners associate words with objects they see in real life B) it helps in teaching the correct spelling of words C) we can teach vocabulary only through objects D) young learners are not capable of abstract thinking
22.	The best way to sensitise young learners to rhythm and intonation is A) by explaining the rules of phonetics in simple words B) by reading out poems in different metres and explaining them C) by making the learners listen to nursery rhymes and recite them effectively D) by making the learners copy out simple poems in neat handwriting
23.	Telling interesting stories to young learners is primarily meant for improving their A) Reading skills B) Writing skills C) Speaking skills D) Listening skills
24.	The main purpose of using oral drill is A) To improve the retention capacity of learners B) to assess the comprehension skills of learners C) to improve pronunciation and accuracy D) to enhance the speaking skills of learners
25.	Seating arrangement should be flexible so that A) children have the freedom to move their seats wherever they want B) Many group, pair and whole-class activities can be conducted easily C) children do not form permanent friendship groups D) The teacher ensures equality prevails in her classroom
26.	Knowledge of more than one language A) causes interference in learning a new language B) becomes a burden to the teacher in the language classroom C) confuses the learners while learning a new language D) is very helpful in teaching and learning a new language
27.	An effective language teacher A) will rely entirely on the prescribed test-book B) will make children learn all the answers to the questions given in the text-book C) will use the text-book as well as other material as resources for teaching D) will prepare question papers using only the questions given in the text-book
28.	A teacher engages her learners in a fun activity before beginning a new lesson. The purpose of this activity is to A) Motivate and energise the learners B) Discipline the learners before the lesson C) divert the attention of the learners D) reduce the workload of the teacher
29.	The most effective tool to assess values and attitude of learners is A) Summative test B) Anecdotal Record C) Portfolio D) Unit Test
30.	Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation should be adopted by all schools because A) It affords teachers opportunities to test learners frequently B) it is the latest development in the field of education C) Traditional pen-paper tests do not assess and enhance all the attributes and abilities of learners D) it frees the learners from studies and hard work.
	ENGLISH LANGUAGE - 2
Directions - Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow ( Q. No. 1 to 9 ) by selection the most appropriate option. Anaesthesia in any part of the body means a loss of sensation, either permanent or temporary. The term is usually used to describe the artificially produced loss of sensation which makes a surgical operation painless. There are four main types of anaesthesia : general , spinal , regional , and local. Anaesthetics may be given as gases , by inhalation; or as drugs injected into a vein, A patient given general anaesthesia loses consciousness. Anaesthesia of a fairly large area of the body results from injecting the anaesthetic drug into the spinal canal : all that portion of the body below the level at which the drug is injected is anaesthetized. Regional anaesthesia is the injecting of the nerves as they emerge from the spinal column : the anaesthesia induced by this method affects only that area of the body supplied by those nerves , In local anaesthesia, the drug is injected directly at the site of the operative incision and sometimes also into the nearby surrounding tissues . Formerly the most commonly used local anaesthetic was cocaine, a drug extracted from the leaves of the coca bush and introduced in 1879. But cocaine has some disadvantages and, sometimes, undesirable side-effects. For spinal, regional and local anaesthesia, procaine, or one of the several modifications of procaine, is now widely used instead of cocaine, for very limited and short operations., such as opening a small abscess, local anaesthesia may be induced by spraying ( rather than injecting ) a chemical, ethyl chloride, on a small area of the skin; in changing from the liquid to the gaseous state, this drug freezes the area sprayed, and permits painless incision.
1.	When a part of the body is anaesthetised. A) that part loses the ability to feel any pain B) the nearby organ loses its function permanently C) the body loses its consciousness D) the part gets excited
2.	The real purpose of using anaesthetics is A) to cure patients of diseases B) to make patients unconscious C) to perform operations without causing pain D) to artificially produce loss of sensation
3.	An anaesthetic is inhaled when it is administered A) as a drug B) by injection C) as a gas D) as a spray
4.	When a gas is used as an anaesthetic , the anaesthesia is A) general B) spinal C) local D) regional
5.	Spinal anaesthesia is resorted to when A) a patient has to be made unconscious B) a small area has to be anaesthetised C) the operation involves a big area of the body D) a drug has to be injected into the vein
6.	The expression "the site of the operative incision " means A) all the surrounding tissues B) the place at which a cut is to be made C) the spot at which the anaesthetic has to be injected D) the area of the body supplied by specific nerves
7.	An 'abscess' (line 34) is A) a deep hole B) an operative incision C) a collection of poisonous matter in a hole in the body D) an open wound requiring surgery
8.	The word opposite in meaning to the word ' formerly ' (line 25 ) is A) industrially B) fortunately C) later D) significant
9.	'Anaesthetic' (line-26) is A) a verb B) an adjective C) an adverb D) a noun
Directions - Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow ( Q. No. 10 to 15 ) by selection the most appropriate option. The farmer is up before dawn on shearing-day, driving his flock into pens . By eight o'clock the shearers arrive and, after a hearty breakfast, they take their places on long benches that the farmer has improvised in the pens. Shears are taken from leather cases and sharpened with whetstones; a fire is lighted to heat pitch for the making ; and the work begins Soon the shearers fall into their routine. A lad seizes a sheep from the pen and ties its feet - not with a cord, because that might injure it, but with a strip of sacking. The sheep is carried to the benches, and the shearer begins to slice off the wool . First he shears the coarse wool from the sheep's belly, then lays the animal on its side on the bench between his legs while he snips at the curly wool round the neck. He works to and fro along the ribs, peeling the wool back until it hangs like a cloak doubled back over the animal . Then he turns the sheep over and begins on the unclipped side. In a few moments the whole fleece falls away in one piece, looking like a dirty grey rug. A few more snips from the shears and the wool is cut from either side of the sheep's tail, leaving the animal white and naked. The shearer pushes the sheep to the ground and immediately calls fro another animal . Meanwhile the lad daubs the farmer's mark in pitch on the newly shorn sheep, unties her legs, and drives her out of the shearing pens. A second lad - the farmer's son - seizes the fleece as it is tossed aside, rolls it up , tucking the tail-wool in first, and secures the bundle by knotting the neck. Any loose clippings are gathered separately . The work continues till one o'clock, when the farmer's wife summons the men to dinner, Each man finishes the sheep that is beside him , then the whole party goes back to the farm house, The men troop into the farm kitchen, leaving their dogs to scuffle in the yard. After the shortest if dinner-breaks - for there is much to be done - the shearing continues, and the pile of fleeces mounts
10.	What expression in the first paragraph suggests that shearing does not take place very often ? A) improvised B) flock C) whetstones D) shearing day
11.	The shearer first cuts the wool from the ___ of the sheep. A) underside B) ribs C) tail D) legs
12.	Why are loose clippings of wool gathered separately ? A) So that they do not get spoiled B) Because they are not so valuable as whole fleeces C) Because they are needed to fill up the top of the bags D) Because they weigh less than a whole fleece
13.	Wool which has been sheared from a sheep is A) cut into two pieces by the shearer with a few snips B) rolled and bundled C) tied with sacking D) bagged on shearing- day
14.	what word from the passage best tells us that shears are like a very large pair of scissors ? A) snips B) cut C) slice D) sharpened
15.	"The sheep is carried to the benches. ' It is an example of A) an interrogative sentence B) a negative sentence C) passive voice D) degree of comparison
Directions - Answer the following questions by selection the most appropriate option .
16.	Substitution table drill helps teachers in A) giving controlled language practice B) developing free writing skills C) improving the fluency of learners D) evaluating the listening skills
17.	When young learners are asked to read a text silently , they should be instructed A) to read fast even if they don't comprehend the meaning B) to stop reading whenever they encounter a difficult word or phrase C) to infer the meaning of new words from the context and read with comprehension D) to pay special attention to grammar items used in the passage
18.	Language skills are best learnt A) When they are introduced in isolation, one skill at a time B) only through written tests and assignments C) if they are taught in an integrated manner D) with the help of challenging and mechanical language drills
19.	The primary objective if using role play is A) to develop acting talent B) to evaluate dialogue writing skill C) to promote the reading habit D) to improve the communicative
20.	The main responsibility of a language teacher as a facilitator is A) to read the lessons aloud and provide explanation for each line B) to create a number of opportunities for the learners to use the language meaningfully C) to provide a lot of information and make the learners listen to it D) to strictly control the class and cover the syllabus in quick time
21.	After a story-telling , the learners are asked to change the ending of the story. This will help the learners A) become imaginative and creative B) understand grammar better C) develop library reference skills D) evaluate the teacher's originality
22.	Which of the following will help learners take grater responsibility for their own learning ? A) Summative Assessment B) Supervised reading sessions C) Controlled writing tasks D) Peer Assessment
23.	Under Constructivist Approach to language learning, learners are encouraged to A) learn the grammar rules by rote B) discover the rules of grammar from examples C) avoid errors completely D) practice language drills mechanically
24.	The main purpose of assessment is A) to decide pass and fail B) to measure achievement of learners C) to give practice in writing D) to improve the teaching - learning process
25.	Young learners will enjoy a play included in the text-book when they A) read the play silently B) listen to the teacher reading the play C) enact the play D) get detailed explanations about the play from the teacher
26.	When young learners are taught to improve their spelling and punctuation , they will A) improve their accuracy B) enhance their fluency C) nurture their creativity D) sharpen their listening skills
27.	After reading a poem, a teacher involves the learners in group work. One group writes the summary of the poem, another draws a picture to depict the main theme and yet another sets the poem to music, this activity A) will distract the learners from the lesson B) is a sheer waste of time C) caters to diverse abilities and interests D) is aimed at preparing the learners for assessment
28.	Instead of asking questions and getting answers from her learners. a teacher gives some short texts and asks her learners to frame questions. Her primary objective is to A) train the learners as good question paper setters B) take their help during examinations C) make the learners realize the difficulties faced by teachers in preparing question papers D) enhance the learners' analytical and critical thinking
29.	Correct speech habits can be developed most effectively through A) Dictations B) Pronunciation practice C) Vocabulary practice D) Quizzes
30.	Reading between the lines as a sub- skill of reading mainly involves A) Identifying the grammatical item B) understanding the stated facts C) giving sufficient space between lines D) inferring the unstated using the contextual and verbal clues
Ans.	ENGLISH - 1 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. D 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.D 14.B 15.C	16.D 17.A 18.A 19.A 20.B 21.A 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.B 26.D 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.C	ENGLISH - 2 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. D 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.B 14.D 15.C	16.A 17.C 18.C 19.D 20.B 21.A 22.A 23.B 24.D 25.C 26.A 27.C 28.D 29.B 30.D

CTET Paper-2 ( SOCIAL STUDIES / SOCIAL SCIENCE ) Exam held on 29.01.2012

Social Studies / Social Science
1.	The East India Company used the Diwani revenue from Bengal primarily in A) purchasing cotton and silk textiles in India B) amassing stocks of gold and silver to replenish the dwindling stocks in Britain C) constructing bridges and roads D) building schools colleges and universities
2.	The East India Company set up a factory in Bengal on the banks of Hugli in 1651 to A) manufacture cotton textiles for exporting to England B) buy spices for sending them to England C) buy Indigo (Neel) from local farmers to send it to England D) establish a base from which the factors could operate
3.	The division of the period of Indian History into 'Ancient', 'Medieval', and 'Modern' also has problems. Which of the following is one of the problems in it ? A) The concept has been borrowed from the West where Modern period was associated with science, reason, democracy , liberty and equality B) Indian History seems to have clear lines of distinction between 'Ancient'. and 'Medieval', and 'Medieval' and 'Modern' period C) Tripartite division reflects gradual growth of the Indian State D) Three periods are insufficient to describe Indian History
4.	Which of the following was a part of temple architecture of the ninth century ? A) Yagya Vedi ( Seat to perform sacred incantation ) B) Havan Kund ( square pyramid shaped pot with open mouth to hold fire ) C) Decorative gateway (Dwara) D) Rangshala ( place to perform dance )
5.	Pietra dura was a A) Style of decoration of buildings B) Role of succession C) Greek god D) Metallurgy technology
6.	Who of the following impeached by the British Parliament ? A) Charles Clive B) Warren Hastings C) T.B. Macualay D) Cornwallis
7.	Which of the following combinations of kingdoms was engaged in tripartite struggle ? A) Chola, Rashtrakuta, Pala B) Pala, Pallava , Rashtrakuta C) Rashtrakuta, pala, Gurjar-Pratihara D) Pala, Chola, Gurjar-Pratihara
8.	In 1720, the British Government enacted a legislation called the Calico Act to A) ban the use of printed cotton textiles-Chintz_in England B) punish rebels from Calicut C) promote Calico industry in England D) produce Calico textiles in England
9.	Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad A) to escape from Mongols B) to punish Southern rulers C) to control his empire effectively as Daulatabad was centrally located D) as he was not getting enough revenue from North India
10.	Tanti, Momin and Devangs communities were engaged in A) Leather works B) Weaving C) Wood works D) Pottery Making
11.	As a consequence of the Revolt of 1857, which of the following was a change initiated by the British Parliament ? A) Pathan and Sikh soldiers were banned from joining the British Indian Army B) All ruling chiefs of the country were warned that military action would be taken against them if they support any rebellion C) A member of the British Cabinet was appointed Secretary of State for India D) The land and property of prominent Hindu and Muslim citizens who supported the revolt were confiscated
12.	Chera chieftains ruled in twelfth century in the area presently lying in A) Chhattisgarh/ Madhya Pradesh B) Jharkhand/ Bihar C) Uttarakhand / Uttar Pradesh D) Punjab/ Haryana
13.	Which of the following three universities were established in the year 1857 by the British Government A) Calcutta, Madras and Bombay B) Calcutta, Madras and Banaras C) Calcutta, Bombay and Punjab D) Calcutta, Bombay and Delhi
14.	Tribal people do not keep written records of their past. How do present-day historians write tribal history ? A) Using archaeological sources B) Using oral traditions C) Using natural traditions D) Using tribal mythologies
15.	Bidri was A) an inlay work in copper and silver done by the artisans of Bidar B) a type of silk textile produced in Bidar C) a type of cotton textile produced in Bidar D) a type of copper ware produce in Bidar
16.	Which one of the following Sultans used the Banjaras to transport grains to the city markets ? A) Balban B) Firoz-Shah Tughlaq C) Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq D) Alauddin Khilji
17.	Which of the following tribal societies was divided into Khels ? A) Gond B) Ahom C) Santhal D) Bhil
18.	Why did Jatis emerge within Varnas, which became the basis to organize Indian society ? A) Fierce opposition against Varna system gave way to development of Jatis B) Due to Gradual expansion in social and economic needs of the people, people with new skill-sets ere required C) There was a problem in integrating tribal people into Varna system D) Jatis and Varnas are one ant the some
19.	A historical site is a place where A) history-loving people gather B) historians write history C) relics of the past are found D) Excavation activities are done
20.	What is'Common Era' ? A) A new era to study historical events B) Christian Era which is now accepted in major parts of the world C) Indian Era accepted by the government to issue notices D) A new Era developed by amalgamation of Hindu Era and Islamic Era
21.	Which of the following combinations of planets is known as ' Gaseous planets'? A) Venus, Jupiter, Mars , Saturn B) Mars, Venus, Saturn ,Uranus C) Jupiter, Saturn , Uranus, Neptune D) Jupiter, Mars , Earth, Neptune
22.	If Ahmedabad is situated on 72 degree 30' E longitude, what would be the local time of Ahmedabad if it is 8:30 am Indian Standard Time ? A) 8:40 am B) 8:00 am C) 7:20 am D) 7:00 am
23.	Plantations, a type of commercial farming, require a large amount of A) land and labour B) labour and capital C) land and capital D) only capital
24.	Vultures in the Indian subcontinent started dying if kidney failure shortly after scavenging livestock treated with A) Diclofenac B) Aspirin C) Ibuprofen D) Aldrin
25.	Ahmedabad is a hub of cotton textile industry . Which of the following is one of the factors for flourishing textile industries inn Ahmedabad ? A) It is situated close to cotton growing area B) Its easy access to the Tuticorin Port C) Industrial Policy of the Indian Government D) Availability of cheap labour- force
26.	Wind actions create 'Mushroom rocks' which are usually found in A) Hills B) Plateaus C) Deserts D) Tropical coastal areas
27.	'Blackfoot Indian' is a A) Disease prevalent in Nicobar Islands B) native tribe if North America C) Plantation worker in Cuba D) Migrant Indian in Canada
28.	In nuclear power plants, electricity is generated through the process of A) nuclear fusion B) nuclear fission C) nuclear collision D) atomic vibrations
29.	Which type of rainfall is represented in the diagram given below ? A) Cyclonic rainfall B) Orographic rainfall C) Convectional rainfall D) Frontal rainfall
30.	The following diagram shows the position of the Earth on a particular day . A, B, C, D and E are locations on the Earth. Which location will experience longest hour of daylight ? A) A B) B C) C D) D
31.	'Right to Education ' is a Fundamental Right under Article 21 which deals with 'Right to Life' because A) Education is life B) not all people had right to education C) education helps in leading a dignified life D) only an educated person has right to life
32.	Public Interest Litigation (PIL) has A) increased access to justice B) hampered the delivery of justice C) led to a decrease in judicial activism D) hampered government functioning
33.	All Indians should have a right to vote irrespective of their socio-economic status. This idea can be associated with A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
34.	The first hour of every sitting of the Lok Sabha is Called A) Zero hour B) Questions hour C) Public hour D) Privilege hour
35.	According to the Indian Constitution, the right empowering citizens to move to High court or Supreme Court if they believe that any of their Fundamental Rights has been violated by the State, is A) Right against exploitation B) Right to equality C) Right to life D) Right to constitutional remedies
36.	Showcasing adivasis as wearing colourful costumes, headgear and dancing often results in A) promoting adivasi culture B) demonstrating the diversity of Indian culture C) Attracting attention of the world to the plight of poor adivasis D) discriminating against such groups
37.	The Government of India appointed a committee headed by Justice Rajinder Sachar to examine the social, economic and educational status of which of the following communities ? A) Jain B) Sikh C) Anglo-Indian D) Muslim
38.	Media is no longer considered independent because of its close links with A) Government agencies B) Business houses C) NGOs D) CIvil society
39.	C.K. Janu is a very eminent A) Adivasi activist B) Environmentalist C) Script writer D) Anthropologist
40.	'Putting out systems' is A) Whereby merchants sell their merchandise on installments B) whereby merchants force labourers to work for extra hours C) Whereby merchants give advances and receive the product D) Whereby merchants supply raw material and receive finished product
41.	'Learning Without Burden (1993)' recommended that learning in Social Sciences should A) Help in the retention of important information B) promote developing concepts and abilities to analyse socio-political realities C) develop skills relevant to jobs D) continue to follow the epistemological framework of highlighting developmental issues
42.	The book 'Social and Political Life-II' advocates which of the following forms of evaluation, among other forms ? A) Open book exercises B) Personal interviews C) IT ( computer ) enabled evaluation D) Written mode of examination
43.	While teaching ' Poverty', which strategy would be most appropriate ? A) Prepare notes and deliver a good lecture B) Give hand-outs to students and explain C) Engage students in debate and discussions D) Ask students to read from the textbook and explain the difficult words
44.	The National Curriculum Framework 2005, suggests that instead of ;Civics', the term 'Political Science' be used because A) The term 'Civics' was coined in the Rajera and is associated with obedience and loyalty B) 'Political Science' is taught at a higher level of education, therefore schools should prepare grounds for it C) 'Political Science' is a globally recognized field of study D) 'Political Science' will provide political training
45.	'Team Teaching ' A) encourages healthy competition among teams of teachers in a school B) involves small teams if students as per their ability C) involves teams if teachers to optimize resources, interest and expertise D) is a way out to manage with the shortage of teacher
46.	The major purpose of assessment in Social Science should be to A) gauge the extent of the knowledge of content acquired by learners B) maintain a desirable academic quality of knowledge in the students passing out C) provide credible feedback on the extent to which educational objectives have been achieved D) predict the learners' chances of pursuing a successful career in humanities
47.	'Child-centered' pedagogy is A) teaching as per the desire if a child B) teacher explains the concept by standing in the center with children encircling her C) giving primacy to children's experiences, their voices, and their active participation D) to teach children in small child care centers to ensure individual attention
48.	'Social and Political Life' textbooks use which of the following methods to contextualize education to a child's world A) They astutely intermingle the social and political lives in Indian people B) They use a lot of case studies and narratives in a mix of rural and urban examples C) They cite results of many surveys done in this reference D) They incorporate lesser number of pictures to avoid distractors
49.	A trainee teacher writes one of the instructional objectives as 'students shall be able to describe the meaning of democracy' . In which domain shall this objective fall ? A) Synthesis B) Comprehension C) Analysis D) Skill
50.	While teaching an issue sensitive to a particular community , but described in the textbook, A) the teacher should respect the textbook and explain the facts as given B) the teacher should write to the authorities to omit the contentious topic from the curriculum C) the teacher should explain the concept with sensitivity and firm commitment while respecting the dignity of all students D) the teacher should ask students to make notes on these in the library or at home
51.	Cultural, social and class differences generate their own biases and prejudices in the contexts of classrooms. The approach to teaching therefore needs to be A) Discussion - oriented B) Open-ended C) Lecture method D) Project- oriented
52.	Which amongst the following is associated with oral reasoning ? A) Imitating peers B) Writing an article by pronouncing words loudly C) Impromptu application and extrapolation of concepts D) Narrating an algorithm
53.	In order to promote interactive environment in a Social Science class, which of the following approaches would be most suitable ? A) Dictation and practice B) Frequent testing C) Lecture and explanation D) Showing documentaries
54.	A teacher while explaining agricultural practices discusses case studies on agricultural practices in India and the USA. Which aspect of learning is she/he focusing on ? A) Ability to understand the concept B) Ability to interpret and explain C) Ability to make a better project D) Ability to learn by comparing and contrasting through concrete examples
55.	The questions-answer technique can be quite effective in teaching Social Science as it ensures A) a more disciplined class B) an active participation by learners C) students ability to respond better in examination D) students come into class well-prepared
56.	One of the most important and effective methods of teaching History at elementary level is A) Lecture method B) Discussion method C) Question-answer method D) Story-telling method
57.	In order to promote the process of cooperative learning, the teacher should A) assign group projects B) engage students in debate and discussions C) divide the class into groups of homogeneous ability D) allot individual assignment to each students
58.	While dealing with 'Social Equality', what should be the most appropriate approach for teaching ? A) Explaining the concept as described in the textbook B) Giving a project to students to review texts relating to 'Social Equality' C) Citing the experiences of the communities that make up the social and cultural milieu of the child D) Explaining in detail the practice of untouchability
59.	In teaching of Social Sciences, the emotions of children are most easily aroused not by words but by sights and sounds, for which the most effective way of teaching is through A) Project method B) Lecture method C) Field trips and surveys D) Classroom discussions
60.	While teaching the concept of 'Weather and Climate', what would be the most appropriate activity to make students understand the various elements of weather ? A) Solve the worksheet provided by the teacher based on the elements of weather B) Collect the weather report of five consecutive days from the newspaper and stick in their notebooks C) Ask them to draw the symbols of elements of weather D) Write answers to the questions related to weather in the notebook
Ans.	1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10.B 11.C 12.A	13.A 14.D 15.A 16.D 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.C 23.A 24.D	25.A 26.C 27.B 28.B 29.C 30.D 31.C 32.A 33.A 34.B 35.D 36.D	37.D 38.A 39.A 40.D 41.B 42.A 43.C 44.C 45.C 46.C 47.C 48.B	49.B 50.C 51.A 52.C 53.D 54.D 55.B 56.D 57.A 58.C 59.C 60.B

CTET Paper-2 ( Science and Child development ) Exam held on 29.01.2012

Science and Child Development
1.	Given below are a few chemical processes: a. Rusting of iron b. Burning of candle c. Respiration d. Photosynthesis Which two of these represent slow combustion? (A) d and a (B) a and c (C) b and c (D) b and d
2.	The smallest of living organisms with cell wall are (A) Yeast (B) Algae (C) Cyanobacteria (D) Bacteria
3.	When CNG or LPG undergoes complete combustion, the products formed are (A) CO2 and H2O (B) CO2 SO2 and H2O (C) CO2 only (D) CO2, CO and H2O
4.	Assessment in Science should focus more on testing the ability of students to (A) answer open-ended questions (B) be sufficiently equipped for higher learning (C) state the facts and principles of Science correctly (D) apply the understanding of concepts to unfamiliar situations in everyday life
5.	The SI unit of calorific value is (A) J/kg (B) Kilocalorie/kg (C) KJ/kg (D) Calorie
6.	The process of converting sugars into alchohols is known as (A) Pasteurization (B) Sterilization (C) Homogenization (D) Fermentation
7.	One of the main limitations of the Project method of teaching Science is that (A) knowledge is not acquired in a sequential manner (B) integration of concepts in various subjects can be achieved (C) the students have to perform excessive mental and physical work (D) it is a psychological method
8.	Summative Assessment in Science should mainly focus on (A) assessing observation skills (B) diagnosing the areas of learning difficulties of students (C) tesing of mainly the practical skills (D) testing important theoretical concepts
9.	The dietary fibres are (A) made up of collagen fibres (B) made up of protiens (C) also called roughage (D) made up of cellulose and protiens
10.	If the frequency of vibrations of a body is decreased and its amplitude is increased then (A) pitch increases but loudness decreases (B) pitch decreases but loudness increases (C) both pitch and loudness of sound produced will decrease (D) both pitch and loudness of sound produced will increase
11.	Which one of the following man-made fibres is also called artificial silk? (A) Acrylic (B) Polyester (C) Nylon (D) Rayon
12.	Constructivist approach in teaching science refers to (A) providing more and more reading materials to students (B) providing addtional academic help to weak students (C) applying different mathematical formulae in solving problems (D) providing experiential learning to students
13.	The gas which forms carboxy-haemoglobin in the blood, causing suffocation is (1) Cabon monoxide (2) Nitrogen (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Chloroflurorocarbon
14.	Which of the following statements related to earthquakes is NOT correct? (A) The record of the seismic waves is called seismograph. (B) The seismograph records the seismogram. (C) The Ritchter Scale is not linear but logarithmic. (D) The seismic waves originate from focus.
15.	Which one of the following is the key feature of Formative Assessment in Science? (A) It is aimed at developing scientific temper in the students. (B) It is aimed at enhancing practical skills. (C) It is conducted at the end of the year (D) It is diagnostic in nature
16.	Project method in teaching of Science is suited most to (1) strengthen reasoning skill of students (2) promote scientific method of working (3) promote understanding of basic concepts in Science (4) enhance numerical abilities of students
17.	The following observations were made by students A, B, C and D when they rubbed solid baking soda on dry litmus paper : Students -- Effect on dry red --- Effect on dry blue litmus paper litmus paper A Colour changed to blue No change B No change Colour changed to red C Colour changed to blue Colour changed to red D No change No change The correct observation was made by the student (A) C (B) D (C) A (D) B
18.	Practical work in Science may be given due to emphasis in order to (A) to keep proper check on punctuality and regularity of students (B) help the students verify the theoretical concepts (C) improve the percentage of marks obtained by the students (D) help the students develop the habit of maintaining written records
19.	Which one of the following is the major objective of teaching of Science at upper primary stage? (A) To learn important facts and formulas (B) To develop proficiency in the solving excercise given at the end of the chapter (C) To promote rational thinking (D) To remember names of scientists and scientific discoveries
20.	Antibiotics are effective against (A) Influenza (B) Hepatitis A (C) Dengue Fever (D) Cholera
21.	PET bottles and jar are commonly used for storing edible items. PET is a very familiar form of (A) Rayon (B) Polyamide (C) Polyester (D) Acrylic
22.	When electric current is passed through a metallic conductor, amount of heat produced in the conductor depends on its (A) material and thickness only (B) material, length and thickness (C) material and length only (D) length and thickness only
23.	The minerals that are required in the right amount for proper functioning of muscles are (A) Iodine and fluroine (B) Iron and Iodine (C) Iron and Calcium (D) Sodium and potassium
24.	The gases present in the atmosphere that cause greenhouse effect are (1) Methane, water vapour, cabon dioxide (2) Cabon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen (3) Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, methane (4) Nitrous oxide, oxygen, water vapour
25.	When carbon dioxide is passed through clear lime water solution, it turns milky. The milky appearance of lime water is due to (A) presence of soluble calcium carbonate (B) curdling of milk due to lime in lime water (C) presence of impurities in lime water (D) presence of insoluble calcium carbonate
26.	In order to determine the acidic, basic or neutral character of solutions, a student tabulated the following results after experimentation. Which of the following observations has been tabulated correctly? (A) C (B) D (C) A (D) B
27.	Which one of the following is most suited to the development of scientific skills in students? (A) Conducting Science Olympiads (B) Performing laboratory work (C) Conducting Science quiz (D) Organizing a field visit
28.	A Science teacher is interested to focus more on acquisition of process skills by the learners.Which of the following combination of methods of teaching should be preferred by her to achieve the objectives? (A) Project-cum-laboratory method (B) Lecture-cum-demonstration method (C) Assignment -cum-questioning method (D) Lecture-cum-discussion method
29.	Which of the following group of words can be correctly identified with Rhizobium? (A) Roots of legumes, parasite, soluble nitrogen compounds (B) Leguminous plants, symbiotic, stem nodes (C) Root nodules, pitcher plant, nitrogen deficient soil (D) Nitrogen fixation, root nodules, leguminous plants
30.	A laboratory thermometer shows five small divisions between the markings of 55 oC and 56 oC.This means that the thermometer can read correctly up to (A) 55.2 oC (B) 55.25 oC (C) 55.1 oC (D) 55.5 oC
	Child Development and Pedagogy
1.	Environmental factors that shape development include all of the following except A) quality of education B) physique C) quality of nutrition D) culture
2.	Seema learns every lesson very quickly but Leena takes longer to learn them. It denotes the developmental principle of A) Continuity B) general to specific C) individual differences D) inter-relationships
3.	Development starts from A) the stage of infancy B) pre-childhood stage C) post-childhood stage D) pre-natal stage
4.	Which of the following is predominantly a heredity related factor ? A) Attitude towards peer group B) Thinking pattern C) Colour of the eyes D) Participation in social activities
5.	Teachers are advised to involve their learners in group activities because, besides facilitating learning, they also help in A) Value conflicts B) Aggression C) Anxiety D) Socialization
6.	A student is aggressive in his behaviour towards his peer group and does not conform to the norms of the school. This student needs help in A) Cognitive domain B) Psychomotor domain C) Affective domain D) Higher order thinking skills
7.	The stage of cognitive development, according to Piaget, in which a child displays 'object permanence' is A) Sensorimotor stage B) Pre-operation stage C) Concrete operational stage D) Formal operational stage
8.	According to Kohlberg, the thinking process involved in judgments about questions of right and wrong is called A) Moral realism B) Moral dilemma C) Morality co-operation D) Moral reasoning
9.	In co-operative learning, older and more proficient students assist younger and lesser skilled students. This leads to A) Conflict between the groups B) higher achievement and self-esteem C) intense competition D) higher moral development
10.	In a child-centered classroom, children generally learn A) individually B) in groups C) individually and in groups D) mainly from the teacher
11.	The statement ' Majority of the people are average, a few very bright and few very dull' is based on the established principle of A) Growth of intelligence B) Intelligence and sex differences C) Intelligence and racial differences D) Distribution of intelligence
12.	Ability to recognize and classify all varieties of animals, minerals and plants, according to multiple intelligences theory, is called A) Linguistic intelligence B) Spatial intelligence C) Logico-mathematical intelligence D) Naturalist intelligence
13.	Thinking is essentially A) a psychological phenomenon B) an affective behaviour C) a cognitive activity D) a psychomotor process
14.	A good textbook avoids A) gender bias B) gender sensitivity C) gender equality D) social responsibility
15.	Gifted students will realize their potential when A) they are segregated from other students B) they attend private coaching classes C) they are tested frequently D) they learn with other students
16.	Inclusive education refers to a school education system that A) includes children with disability B) includes children regardless of plysical, intellectual, social, linguistic or other differently abled conditions C) encourages education of children with special needs through exclusive schools D) emphasizes the need to promote the education of the girl child only
17.	Dyslexia is associated mainly with difficulties in A) speaking B) speaking and hearing C) hearing D) reading
18.	The major frustration that children with hearing loss face in the classroom is A) the inability to read the prescribed textbook B) the inability to participate in sports and games C) the inability to communicate or share information with others D) the inability to take examinations with other students
19.	The 'doing' aspect of behaviour falls in the A) Cognitive domain of learning B) Affective domain if learning C) Conative domain of learning D) Psychological domain of learning
20.	A student works hard to clear an entrance test for admission into a medical college, The students is said to be motivated A) intrinsically B) extrinsically C) individually D) experientially
21.	A teacher engages her learners in a number if group activities such as group discussions, group projects, role plays, etc. The learning dimension it highlights is A) language - guided learning B) competition - based learning C) learning as a social activity D) learning through recreation
22.	Creativity is usually associated with A) Convergent thinking B) Divergent thinking C) Modelling D) Imitation
23.	A teacher always helps her learners link the knowledge they have derived in one subject area with the knowledge from other subject areas. This helps to promote A) individual differences B) learner autonomy C) reinforcement D) correlation and transfer of knowledge
24.	Teachers should study the errors of their students as they often indicate the A) extent of their knowledge B) remedial strategies needed C) pathways for ability grouping D) need for differentiated curriculum
25.	When previous learning makes no difference at all to the learning in a new situation, it is called A) Positive transfer of learning B) Negative transfer of learning C) Zero transfer of learning D) absolute transfer of learning
26.	According to Piaget's cognitive theory of learning, the process by which the cognitive structure is modified is called A) Assimilation B) Schema C) Perception D) Accommodation
27.	According to theories of motivation , a teacher can enhance learning by A) not having any expectations from students B) setting extremely high expectations from students C) setting realistic expectations from students D) setting uniform standards of expectations
28.	A teacher uses audio-visual aids and physical activities in her teaching because they A) provide a diversion to learners B) utilize maximum number of senses to enhance learning C) provide relief to the teacher D) facilitate effective assessment
29.	When a teacher involves a visually challenged learner in group activities with the other learners of the class, she is A) helping all the learners to develop sympathy towards the visually challenged learner B) likely to increase the stress on the visually challenged learner C) creating barriers to learning for the class D) acting according to the spirit of inclusive education
30.	Science and Art exhibitions, music and dance shows and bringing out school magazines, are meant to A) establish a name for the school B) satisfy the parents C) provide a creative channel for learners D) train students fro various professions
Ans.	Science 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10.B 11.D 12.D 13.A 14.B 15.D	16.B 17.C 18.B 19.C 20.D 21.C 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.D 26.B 27.B 28.A 29.D 30.A	Child Development 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. B 10.C 11.D 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.D	16.B 17.D 18.C 19.A 20.A 21.C 22.B 23.D 24.B 25.C 26.A 27.C 28.B 29.D 30.C

CTET Paper-2 ( English 1 and 2 ) Exam Held on 29.01.2012

ENGLISH LANGUAGE - 1
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow ( Q.No. 1 to 9 ) by selecting the most appropriate option. The Big Ben Every evening , some part of the British Commonwealth hears the chimes of Big Ben, largest of the bells in the clock tower of the Palace of Westminster. The bell is popularly called Big Ben, and it is this bell which chimes out the quarter hours to the people of London. For Bristons at sea or living in distant lands, the sound of Big Ben is still a link with home, for the chimes are broadcast each evening by the British Broadcasting Corporation. Big Ben has been chiming out the quarter hours now for more than one-and -a-half centuries. It started chiming on June 11, 1859. At that time, the Parliament couldn't decide what to name the bell, A light-hearted Member of Parliament called attention, in a speech, to the impressive bulk of Sir Benjamin Hall, Queen Victoria's Chief Lord of the Woods and Forests. 'Call it Big Ben, ' said the speaker, and the name stuck. Big Ben is 9 feet in diameter, 7 feet 6 inches tall, and the thickness where the hammer strikes is 8.75 inches. The clock that regulates the chiming of Big Ben keeps good time, In 1939, The Royal Astronomer made a 290-day check on the performance of the clock. He found that during this test, the margin of error was less than two-tenth of a second in 24 hours on 93 days and grater than one second only on 16 of the 290 days. There was an unexpected lapse on August 12, 1945, and consternation swept through the Ministry of Works . On that dark day, the clock was five minutes slow. A flock of starlings had roosted on the minute hand.
1.	Aside from popular usage, Big Ben is rally the ___ A) clock tower of the Place of Westminster B) great bell in the clock tower if the Palace of Westminster C) exclusive radio signal of the BBC D) name of Chief Lord of the Woods and Forests.
2.	The year 1959 was the ___ A) 59th anniversary of Big Ben B) last year Big Ben was heard C) 100th anniversary of Big Ban D) Year in which Big Ben was restored
3.	The Word 'consternation' used in the last paragraph stands for A) anxiety B) despair C) alarm D) sorrow
4.	In the Royal Astronomer's 290-day check , it was established that A) the clock was reasonably accurate B) the clock was losing time alarmingly C) The clock did not function properly for 93 days D) The clock was maintaining accurate time on all days
5.	On August 12, 1945, Big Ben's clock was ___ A) Bombed B) 5 minutes slow C) being checked for accuracy D) 5 minutes fast
6.	For the Britons at sea or living in distant lands, the Big Ben serves as a link with home, It shows that A) the British are fond of travelling to far-off lands B) the Big Ben has become a powerful national symbol C) the British are very patriotic D) the British are very sentimental
7.	People outside London can hear the chimes of the Big Ben because A) the bell's sound is so lud that it can travel to all parts of the world B) the legendary bell has become a global phenomenon C) The BBC broadcasts the chimes D) the recording of the bell's chime is available all over the world
8.	The clock lost five minutes once because A) The maintenance was not done by the Ministry of Works B) it was a dark day C) some starlings had roosted on the minute hand D) there was an unexpected lapse
9.	'Call it Big Ben' can be written in passive voice as A) Let if be called Big Ben B) People should call it Big Ben C) We may call it Big Ben D) You will call it Big Ben
Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 10-15) by selecting the most appropriate option. I Build Walls I build walls: Walls that protect, Walls that shield, Walls that say I shall not yield Or reveal Who I am or how I feel. I build walls: Walls that hide, Walls that cover what’s inside, Walls that stare or smile or look away, Silent lies, Walls that even block my eyes From the tears I might have cried. I build walls: Walls that never let me Truly touch Those I love so very much Walls that need to fall ! Walls meant to be fortresses Are prisons after all.
10.	What are the walls in this poem made of ? A) Bricks or many physical material B) Cement and tiles C) Blood and flesh D) Hidden feelings and thoughts
11.	The poet uses 'walls' as a A) Simile B) Personification C) Metaphor D) Alliteration
12.	When walls act as a protection, they A) do not reveal what is inside B) Make one shed tears C) touch the ones who are truly loved D) surrender to strong feelings
13.	The expression 'silent lies' in the second stanza implies that A) walls are silent B) walls are liars C) walls make one hide one's true feelings D) walls lie silently around all of us
14.	Why is it not a good idea to have these ' walls' ? A) They act as a fortress. B) They act as a prison and keep loved ones away . C) They are made of bricks. D) They hurt others.
15.	Walls built to protect us ultimately turn into a prison. It is an example of a A) satire B) Paradox C) Puzzle D) Riddle
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option,
16.	Constructivist approach to language teaching expects the teacher to A) Construct his own curriculum B) make learners prepare their own textbooks C) help construct knowledge using their experiences D) give pre-constructed knowledge to learners
17.	A child-centred classroom is characterized by A) children sitting in the centre if the classroom B) children teaching other children under the supervision of the teacher C) very passive teachers and active learners D) a variety of learning activities for the learners
18.	Which of the following is not a legitimate purpose of assessment in education ? A) To identify individual and special needs of learners B) To improve the teaching-learning process C) To rank the learners on the basis of marks D) To find out to what extent curricular objectives have been achieved
19.	When students learn a language for bright employment opportunities, their motivation is A) intrinsic B) exotic C) eccentric D) extrinsic
20.	A teacher uses a report from a newspaper to teach writing, The material used thus for teaching is referred to as A) Realistic material B) Natural material C) Authentic material D) External material
21.	When a test item expects the learners to use tense forms, voice, connectors, prepositions, and articles accurately, such an approach can be called A) integrated grammar testing B) asserted grammar practice C) mixed grammar task D) improper grammar testing
22.	Minimal pairs are usually used to give practice in A) Vocabulary B) structures C) pronunciation D) reading
23.	'Prediction' as a subskill is associated with A) summarising B) note making C) reading D) drafting
24.	A teacher gives many sentences and asks her students to arrange them into a letter using appropriate connectors. the skill that is chiefly involved in this task is A) Expanding notes B) organizing C) rewriting D) collecting information
25.	The language skills that cannot be assessed through a traditional pen-paper test are A) reading and speaking B) writing and listening C) reading and listening D) listening and speaking
26.	Which of the following is not a study skill ? A) Note taking B) Using a dictionary C) Getting information from an encyclopaedia D) Writing formal reports
27.	When a teacher uses lessons in Science and Social Science to teach language, such an approach can be termed as A) Pluralistic language teaching B) Discipline-wise language teaching C) Language across the curriculum D) Objective language teaching
28.	Remedial teaching refers to teaching A) to address gaps in learning B) after the regular school hours C) to help bright learners to excel D) to test learners periodically
29.	Language skills should be taught A) in isolation B) through clear explanations C) in an integrated manner D) through imitation
30.	After reading a story on fish, if a teacher asks children to answer -- 'Imagine you are a fish in a pond. What do you see around you ?' This is an example of A) Cloze type question B) Open-ended question C) Multiple choice question D) Comprehension question
	ENGLISH LANGUAGE - 2
Directions - Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow ( Q.No 1-9) by selecting the most appropriate option. It is your duty to train and develop your mind and acquire knowledge, as much knowledge as you possibly can obtain. Knowledge is like a deep well, fed by perennial springs, and your Mind is the little bucket that you drop into it : you will get as much as you can assimilate. The Brain, which is the physical organ of the mind, is one of the two precious products of the aeons of Evolution : the other is the imponderable 'Social instinct', This wonderful Brain, whose every convolution represents millions of years of Time, really distinguishes you from the animals. Many animals have very powerful sense organs; the eagle, the ant and the dog have keener sense to sight than Man, But no animal has a more evolved Brain and higher Intelligence, If you do not develop and use this Brain to the utmost of your power, you are more akin to the beasts than to Homo-Sapiens, Knowledge and metal self-culture will confer untold blessings upon yo. You will not b the victim if superstition and demagogy in religion and politics. You will know your duty and do it. To be wise and independent in your religion and your politics, not to be doped and duped by the selfish priests and the scheming politicians of Capitalism and so called Socialism : is this not a noble aim worth striving for ? Most men and women today are not free and wise: they are like kites flown by the priests and politicians who hold the string. They are fleeced and fooled on account of their ignorance. Half the ills of man are due to ignorance.
1.	What, according to the passage , is the duty of human beings ? A) To study correctly B) To acquire knowledge and develop the mind C) To make ourselves cultured D) To digest knowledge
2.	Mind has been compared to A) a bucket B) a deep well C) a deep sea D) a perennial spring
3.	For human beings., their brains is one of the two products of evolution . The other is their A) Keener sense of sight B) instinct for living in a society C) physical strength D) self-culture and knowledge
4.	What is man like if he does not develop and use his brain ? A) He is akin to the motionless statues B) He is like an angel C) He is akin to the beasts D) He is grater than gods
5.	What will knowledge and mental self-culture confer upon man ? A) Richness of knowledge B) Money and material things C) Many blessings D) Untold miseries
6.	If one acquires knowledge and develops mental self-culture, one will not be the victim of A) breed B) lust and carnal appetites C) pugnacity D) superstition and demagogy
7.	The author implies that most men and women A) are arrogant in their behaviour B) lack social instinct C) do not possess capacity for free judgement D) are manipulated by priests and politicians
8.	Pick out a word from the first paragraph that means the same as 'inexhaustible' A) aeons B) convolution C) perennial D) imponderable
9.	The word 'untold' as used in the second paragraph is A) a verb B) a noun C) an adjective D) an adverb
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions (Q. NO. 10-15) that follow by choosing the most appropriate option. The study of history provides many benefits. First, we learn from the past. We may repeat mistakes, but, at least, we have the opportunity to avoid them. Second, history teachers us what questions to ask about the present. Contrary to some people’s view, the study of history is not the memorization of names, dates, and places. It is the thoughtful examination of the forces that have shaped the courses of human life. We can examine events from the past and then draw inferences about current events. History teaches us about likely outcomes. Another benefit of the study of history id the broad range of human experience which is covered. War and peace are certainly covered as are national and international affairs. However, matters of culture (art, literature and music) are also included in historical study. Human nature is an important part of history: emotions like passion, greed, and insecurity have influenced the shaping of world affairs. Anyone who thinks that the study of history is boring has not really studied history.
10.	By studying history we can A) repeat mistakes B) predict the future C) avoid mistakes D) question the authority
11.	Which method of teaching history would the author of this passage support A) Applying historical events to modern society B) Using flash cards to remember specific facts C) Weekly quizzes on dates and events D) Analyzing wars and their causes
12.	History is all about A) memorizing names, dates and places B) understanding international affairs C) studying about a broad range of human experience D) maps, information detailed data
13.	History is not boring because A) is cover both war and peace B) it studies human nature and culture C) if is full of historical events D) it is about the mistakes we make
14.	What is the main idea of this passage ? A) Studying history helps us to learn from the past B) Studying history is not just memorization C) The role of history is to help students deal with real life D) Students should study both national and international history
15.	Pick out a word from the first paragraph that means the same as 'results' A) benefits B) inferences C) forces D) outcomes
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
16.	The most important feature of an effective language classroom is opportunity for learners to A) interact B) evaluate C) imitate D) relax
17.	Curriculum is an educational programme which does not state A) the educational purpose of a programme B) the content ( material, etc.), teaching strategies and learning experiences which will be necessary to achieve this purpose C) the means of evaluating whether these educational ends have been achieved or not D) the lesson planning details of the topics
18.	In learning a new language, multilingualism is A) an asset B) an interference C) a burden D) a methodology
19.	Speaking skill can be best developed by enabling the learners to A) communicate in real-life situations B) listen to the model provided by the teacher C) avoid all errors while speaking D) read challenging and difficult texts
20.	Seating arrangement should be flexible in language classroom because A) it reduces the responsibility of the teacher B) it helps the teacher in maintaining discipline C) it helps learners change their places frequently D) it facilitates pair work and group work
21.	Pro-reading tasks are meant for A) giving the meanings of difficult words and phrases B) introducing the main idea and motivating the learners C) explaining the grammatical items used in the reading text D) evaluating the reading skill of the learners
22.	Learners acquire a language by A) analysing the structure of the language B) studying the literature if that language C) learning about the culture of the speakers of that language D) using the language in a natural interactive environment
23.	When a teacher asks her students to write a letter after having a group discussion , she is A) integrating different language skills B) following a traditional method C) likely to confuse the students D) adopting the Direct Method of language teaching
24.	Picture comprehension is effective to promote A) speaking skill B) listening skill C) literary skill D) artistic skill
25.	Comprehensive Evaluation refers to assessment of A) academic subjects B) both scholastic and co-scholastic areas C) summative assessment tests D) co-curricular activities
26.	Teaching grammar is useful to improve A) fluency B) literacy C) numeracy D) accuracy
27.	A mixed ability group is heterogeneous in A) gender and age B) social strata C) knowledge and skill D) economic status
28.	A good test on reading comprehension will have questions A) that test the textual knowledge thoroughly B) that encourage learners to write answers without errors C) that test inference, interpretation and evaluation besides comprehension D) that focus primarily on the structures and words used in the text
29.	Teachers should not give corporal punishment to learners because A) it is risky B) it creates stress and fear in learners C) it is only an emotional release for the teachers D) it makes parents very angry
30.	All-round development of a child implies A) harmonious development of physical, emotional and mental faculties B) specialized training to make the l earner a 'Jack of all Trades' C) following the natural stages of child development D) providing vocational education for the learner to function in any work environment
Ans.	English language-1 1. B 2. C 3. D 4.A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. A 10.D 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.B 15.B	16.C 17.D 18.C 19.D 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.D 26.D 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.B	English Language-2 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10.C 11.D 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.D	16.A 17.D 18.A 19.A 20.D 21.B 22.D 23.A 24.D 25.B 26.D 27.D 28.C 29.B 30.A

Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Limited (APCPDCL)

Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Limited invited for the post of Junior Assistant ( LDC) has been published by Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Limited (APCPDCL) to fill up the 100 vacant post of Junior Assistant in the pay scale of Rs. 10520/- – 19520/- on regular basis. So, applications in Online process are being invited by Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Limited (APCPDCL) from qualified and result oriented candidates whose age is not above 30 years and not below 18 years. More information of this recruitment of can be seen below.
Recruitment Details of Junior Assistant Vacancy in APCPDCL
Post Name: – Junior Assistant (LDC).
No. of Vacancies: – 100 Posts.
Salary: – Pay Scale Rs. 10520-325-12145-400-14145-485-16570-590-19520/- per month.
Age Limitation: – Applicants age must not be more than 36 years and not below than 18 years as on 01st July 2011.
Academic Qualification: – Candidates should be Graduation degree holder either from science, arts or science from any recognized Institution or University and Diploma or Post Graduate Diploma Certificate  in Computer Application discipline from any reputed University or Polytechnic Institution.
Application Fee: – Applicants belonging UR Category shall pay Rs. 500/-  and those candidates who are in the group of SC or ST or BC or PH shall pay Rs. 150/- for Examination Fee along with Application Processing.
Fee Payment Mode: – Applicants can pay the application fee through AP Online Portal or any one of the AP Online Centers.
How to apply: – Candidates who want firstly scan their latest passport size color photograph and signature. Then click on Apply Online Tab. After opening the web page of online application form applicants fill it carefully and upload their photo and signature. Thereafter press submit button to submit the application form. After submission of the application form applicants will have to take a print out copy of online application form and enclose attested xerox copies of all supporting documents such as age proof, qualification certificate, caste certificate, domicile certificate etc and send it on the address on or before 22nd March 2012 on the address given further.
Postal Address: – To, The Concerned Superintending Engineer, Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Limited (APCPDCL), Hyderabad.

Official website of Andhra Pradesh Central Power Distribution Company Limited (APCPDCL) is
http://apcentralpower.cgg.gov.in

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Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011

General Knowledge 

(Exam Held on 25-9-2011)

1. Who amongst the following is a Classic Russian author and had written famous book ‘Anna Karenina’ ?

(A) Anton Chekhov
(B) Leo Tolstoy
(C) Maxim Gorky
(D) Vladimir Nabokav
(E) Boris Pasternak
Ans : (B)

2. What is the full form of the letter ‘D’ in the abbreviation ‘MPLADS’ which was recently in news ?
(A) Damaging
(B) Decorating
(C) Development
(D) Dealing
(E) Delimitation
Ans : (C)

3. The World Bank has given a US $ 1 billion loan to clean which of the following rivers in India ?
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Ganga
(D) Jhelum
(E) Beas
Ans : (C)


4. India is a member of which of the following group of countries ?
(A) OPEC
(B) NATO
(C) European Union
(D) Least Developed countries
(E) BRICS
Ans : (E)

5. Prime Minister of India was recently on a visit to Ethiopia and Tanzania. This means he visited two—
(A) European countries
(B) African countries
(C) Asian countries
(D) American countries
(E) Middle East countries
Ans : (B)

6. The 34th National Games were organized in which of the following States ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Assam
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
(E) Jharkhand
Ans : (E)

7. Who among the following has taken over as Union Minister of Railways ?
(A) Dinesh Trivedi
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) Kamal Nath
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) Anand Sharma
Ans : (A)

8. India recently decided to provide US $ 500 million to which of the following nations in its neighbourhood to help it in its redevelopment projects as the country is trying to come up after a long civil war and control of UN peace keeping forces ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan
Ans : (C)

9. As per the amendments made in the Right to Education Act, now free-education will be available to the children upto Standard—
(A) 4th
(B) 6th
(C) 8th
(D) 10th
(E) 12th
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following State Govts. signed a historical pact on Gorkhaland Administration a few months back ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Assam
(E) Manipur
Ans : (C)

11. NATO recently attacked and bombarded which of the following countries as it wanted to control violence between the Govt. of that country and a group of protestors ?
(A) Russia
(B) Iran
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Libya
Ans : (E)

12. India’s population is approximately—
(A) 1 billion
(B) 1•5 billion
(C) 1•75 billion
(D) 1•21 billion
(E) 1•6 billion
Ans : (D)

13. Who amongst the following is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha at present ?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Meira Kumar
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Sushma Swaraj
(E) Sonia Gandhi
Ans : (B)

14. India recently resumed Foreign Ministerial level talks with which of the following countries which was suspended sometimes back due to deadlock on certain crucial issues ?
(A) USA
(B) Bangladesh
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following was the issue which was discussed in a specially convened session of the Parliament on August 27, 2011 ?
(A) Land Acquisition Amendment Bill
(B) Constitutional Reforms Bill
(C) Women’s Reservation Bill
(D) Anti Commercial Violence Bill
(E) Lok Pal Bill after its redrafting
Ans : (E)

16. ‘Dhanush’ is an indigenously developed by India—
(A) Missile
(B) Sub-marine
(C) Patton tank
(D) Fighter plane
(E) Passenger aircraft
Ans : (A)

17. Islam Karimov who was on a visit to India is the President of—
(A) Iraq
(B) Iran
(C) Ethiopia
(D) Tanzania
(E) Uzbekistan
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following is the name of a missile developed by India ?
(A) Dhruva
(B) USHA
(C) Vivian
(D) Trishul
(E) PADMA
Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following is not a Cricket Player ?
(A) Ashish Nehra
(B) James Anderson
(C) Shivnarine Chanderpaul
(D) Jade Dernbach
(E) Vishwanathan Anand
Ans : (E)

20. The 11th Five Year Plan will be over in—
(A) December 2011
(B) January 2012
(C) March 2012
(D) December 2012
(E) March 2013
Ans : (C)

21. Who amongst the following is a well known name in the field of Banking in India ?
(A) H. R. Bharadwaj
(B) S. Y. Qureshi
(C) Yusuf Pathan
(D) D. Subbarao
(E) Ashok Gehlot
Ans : (D)

22. Who among the following is not a Chief Minister of a State at present ?
(A) Tarun Gogoi
(B) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(C) N. Rangaswamy
(D) Raman Singh
(E) Arjun Munda
Ans : (B)

23. Mamta Banerjee belongs to which political party ?
(A) Congress
(B) CPM (I)
(C) BJP
(D) Trinamool Congress
(E) BSP
Ans : (D)

24. Who among the following was given Lifetime Achievement Award in 12th IIFA Awards Ceremony held in Toronto in June 2011 ?
(A) Asha Bhonsle
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Rajesh Khanna
(E) Hema Malini
Ans : (A)

25. Asian Cup Women’s Boxing Tournament was organized in May 2011 in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) Malaysia
Ans : (B)

26. Which of the following States won the National Hockey Championship 2011 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Kerala
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following is an ore of a metal ?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Lime Stone
(C) Sulphur
(D) Menthol
(E) Camphor
Ans : (A)

28. The 43rd Jnanpith Award was given to whom among the following ?
(A) S. L. Bhyrappa
(B) Vishwanath Prasad Tiwari
(C) O. N. V. Kurup
(D) Javed Akhtar
(E) Malti Joshi
Ans : (C)

29. Who among the following is a famous Chess Player ?
(A) Koneru Humpy
(B) Pargat Singh
(C) Baichung Bhutia
(D) Ajit Pal Singh
(E) Ishant Sharma
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following is the full form of ‘CBS’ as used in banking system ?
(A) Corporate Business Strategies
(B) Core Banking Solution
(C) Common Banking Strategies
(D) Common Business Strategies
(E) Corporate Banking Solution
Ans : (B)

31. Which of the following is the name of a Private Sector Bank in India ?
(A) Dena Bank
(B) Syndicate Bank
(C) IDBI Bank
(D) Corporation Bank
(E) South Indian Bank
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking and Finance ?
(A) Accrued interest
(B) Assimilation
(C) Deviance
(D) Diffusion
(E) Stagnant population
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following is not a Public Sector Unit ?
(A) Mishra Dhatu Nigam
(B) Hindalco Industries
(C) Bharat Bhari Udyog Nigam
(D) Container Corporation of India
(E) Hindustan Organic Chemicals
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Back hand
(B) Volley
(C) Follow on
(D) Jockey
(E) Deuce
Ans : (C)

35. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) The God of Small Things
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) The Glass Palace
(D) The Namesake
(E) A Fine Balance
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following is grown as a Spice used in daily cooking and also to be used as a quick remedy of many common ailments ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Turmeric
(C) Jatropha
(D) Cactus
(E) Fern
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following prizes / awards is given by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Kalinga Award
(B) Pulitzer Prize
(C) Padma Bhushan
(D) Jamanalal Bajaj Award
(E) Saraswati Samman
Ans : (D)

38. Which of the following is grown as a vegetable ?
(A) Groundnut
(B) Cotton seed
(C) Custard apple
(D) Radish
(E) Castor
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Irani Cup
(B) Duleep Trophy
(C) Rovers Cup
(D) Agha Khan Cup
(E) Ranji Trophy
Ans : (D)

40. ‘Kathakali’ is a form of dance drama originated in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Manipur
Ans : (A)

41. Who among the following was a famous Scientist of Indian origin and was awarded Nobel Prize during his life time ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Meghnad Saha
(C) Jagdish Chandra Basu
(D) Birbal Sahni
(E) Homi Bhabha
Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following agencies/organizations is closely associated with the functioning of the banking and finance companies in India ?
(A) UNESCO
(B) WTO
(C) SEBI
(D) UGC
(E) CBFC
Ans : (C)

43. Which of the following is not a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Nepal
(D) Bhutan
(E) Japan
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following is called the upper House of the Parliament in India ?
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) Office of the President of India
(C) The Union Cabinet
(D) Office of the Prime Minister of India
(E) The Rajya Sabha
Ans : (E)

45. What is the full form of ‘KYC’ as used in banking world ?
(A) Keep Your Credibility
(B) Know Your Credibility
(C) Know Your Clients
(D) Keep Your Customer
(E) Know Your Customer
Ans : (E)

46. Which of the following is the name of a bank having offices and branches in India ?
(A) Kotak Mahindra
(B) NCL
(C) Wipro
(D) DLF
(E) GAIL
Ans : (A)

47. Which of the following is a software and allied services company functioning in India ?
(A) NTPC
(B) SAIL
(C) AXIS
(D) Infosys
(E) Ambuja
Ans : (D)

48. What is full form of ‘NGO’ a term we listen very often these days ?
(A) National Growth and Opportunities
(B) Non-Governmental Organisation
(C) New Growth & Organisation
(D) Not Growing Organisation
(E) Net Growing Options
Ans : (B)

49. Nirupama Rao is appointed new Ambassador of India to—
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Russia
(D) USA
(E) China
Ans : (D)

50. Financial Inclusion does not include which of the following ?
(A) Having a bank account
(B) Micro credit during emergency
(C) Free registration of business enterprises
(D) Access to all kinds of commercial/personal loans
(E) Access to credit/debit cards
Ans : (C)