Monday, December 19, 2011

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012


APGENCO is the largest Power Generating Company of Andhra Pradesh State and is the 3rd largest Power utility (8923.9 MW) in India and has second highest Hydel capacity in the Country want to be the best power utility in the Country and one of the best in the World invites Online applications for the Recruitment of Trainee Assistant Engineer (for Engineering Graduates in Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil).
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer Recruitment 2012
Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)
Vacancies: 411 Posts
Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720 
Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012
Eligibility Criteria for Trainee Assistant Engineers:
Age Limit: Shall not be more than 34 years as on 01.12.2011.  Upper age limit will be relaxed up to 5 years for SC/ST/BC candidates and 10 years in respect of physically challenged candidates.
Educational Qualifications:
Electrical B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Electrical & Electronics Engineering or equivalent
Mechanical B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Mechanical Engineering or equivalent
Electronics B.E/B.Tech./A.M.I.E., in Electronics & Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Controls Engineering/ Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics & Control Engineering/ Instrumentation Engineering/ Electronics Instrumentation & Power/ Power electronics or equivalent
Civil B.E/B.Tech/A.M.I.E., Civil Engineering or equivalent
Application Fee: OC Candidates – Rs.500/- & for SC/ ST/ BC/ PWD – Rs.150/-  The applicant should pay the prescribed Registration Fee in any one of the A.P. Online Centers or A.P. Online Portal and obtain the receipt.
How to apply: The candidate has to login to the website http://www.apgenco.gov.in and click on APPLY ONLINE link or directly visit http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in to view detailed notification, user guide and to submit application form.  Online application is accessible from 20.12.2011 to 03.01.2012.

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer AE Recruitment 2012


Post: Trainee Assistant Engineer (Electrical, Mechanical, Electronics & Civil)
Vacancies: 411 Posts
Pay Scale: Rs.23115 – 35720
APGENCO Trainee AE Selection Procedure:  Written Test
Date of APGENCO Trainee AE Written Test: 22.01.2012
The written examination will be held at Hyderabad & Secunderabad only.
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer Written exam Pattern: Written test will be conducted in the following manner.
 Section A: Questions on core academic curriculum of respective discipline. The syllabus for the examination is given below.
 Section B:  Questions on analytical aptitude.
Note: The minimum qualifying/ cut off marks in the APGENCO AE written test shall be for OCs – 40%, BCs – 35%, SCs, STs and physically challenged – 30%.

ANDHRA PRADESH SUB INSPECTORS EXAM GENERAL STUDIES 2011 QUESTION PAPER

                                                           

Friday, December 16, 2011

APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Written Test Pattern & Syllabus 2011

i) APSRTC Junior Assistant Finance Written Test is scheduled to be held on 18.12.2011. APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Admit Cards are available in APSRTC official website http://apsrtc.cgg.gov.in/.
ii) Eligible candidates will be called for written examination which is of fully objective type (multiple choice). 
  There will be 200 questions covering different topics.
Duration of Written Examination – 3.00 hours
iii) Each right answer will be awarded one mark.  There is no negative marking.
iv) The number of questions and the subjects covered are furnished hereunder.

APSRTC Junior Assistant (Finance) Written Test Pattern 2011
Sl. No. Subject No. of Questions Marks
1 Accounting &  Finance 100 100
2 Numerical Aptitude 25 25
3 General English 25 25
4 General Knowledge 25 25
5 General Intelligence& Clerical Aptitude 25 25

APGENCO JPA written test Pattern & Syllabus - Selection Process

APGENCO invited online applications for filling up of 1755 Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) posts by Direct Recruitment as per the notification dated 19.10.2011. APGENCO Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) 2011 written test is scheduled to be held on 18.12.2011 (Sunday).
APGENCO Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) 2011 Selection Procedure:
APGENCO JPA Selection Procedure comprising of Total 100 Marks.
A. Criteria for preliminary evaluation: – 50 Marks
(i) 30 Marks will be allocated against marks obtained in the qualifying examination of ITI [Marks Secured in ITI X 30/Total Marks in ITI].
(ii) Weightage up to 10 Marks will be given for having passed the qualifying examination of ITI before the date of notification @ 2 Marks for each completed year of passing. Fraction of months will be ignored.
(iii) Service Weightage to contract labour worked in Power Generating Stations of APGENCO:
• Service for more than 6 months… 10 Marks
• Service for less than 6 months …   5 Marks

APGENCO Junior Plant Attendant (JPA) 2011 Written Test Paper Pattern:
B. APGENCO JPA Written Test – 25 Marks:    Based on the marks secured as per the criteria mentioned in “A” above, a combined merit list of all trades shall be drawn and the candidates in the ratio of 1:20 will be called for “APGENCO JPA Written Test” duly following the rule of reservation. Any candidate carrying equal marks under 1:20 ratio shall also be called for the said written test.  The APGENCO JPA 2011 exam paper comprising of 25 marks consisting of 50 multiple choice questions and each question carrying “half” mark on Power Plant Related Topics of Thermal and Hydel Generating Stations with common paper in Telugu and English.

APGENCO Junior Plant Assistant JPA 2011 Written Test Paper Syllabus

C. APGENCO JPA 2011 Trade Test – 25 Marks:  Based on the marks secured as per the criteria mentioned in “A” & “B” above, a combined merit list of all trades shall be drawn and the candidates in the ratio of 1:3 will be called for “Trade Test relating to respective Trades” duly following the Rule of Reservation.
The date and place of “Trade Test” will be communicated “online” through APGENCO website http://www.apgenco.gov.in/ and http://apgenco.cgg.gov.in   separately.
D.  There will be no interview.

Saturday, December 10, 2011

VRO/VRA GUIDANCE & MODEL PAPER

                                                           

NURSING ORDERLY RECRUITMENT

APPSC JUNIOR LECTURERS EXAM COMMERCE SOLVED PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 03-12-2011)

1.World Trade Organisation came into existence on

Ans : 1-1-1995

2. The form of departmentation often used in the sales function is

Ans: By Territory

3. which of the following statements reflects the relation between line and staff ?

Ans : Line is operational, staff is advisory

4. The tendency to disperse decision making authority in an organised structure is called

Ans: Decentralisation

5. A firm producing that output at which the marginal cost curve intersects with the marginal revenue curve from down, is known as

Ans: Equilibrium firm

6.What is the main purpose of Internal communication ?

Ans: Information

7. IDPL unit prepares key formulations of drugs. Hundreds of drug firms are established which take key formulations from IDPL. The IDPL comes under

Ans: Genetic Industry

8. Integration and synchronisation of group efforts in the organisation to achieve organisational goals is called

Ans: Co-ordination

9. which one is the main purpose of Management Information System?

Ans: Assess and distribute information

10. Organisational technique of control cane be differentiated into

Ans: Feedback and feed forward

11. How are committees useful as a technique of co-ordination ?

Ans: All of these

12. One of the following was not an objective of Industrial Policy 1991

Ans: To attain self reliance through import substitution

13. Vertical integration is resorted in case

Ans: Financial optima is smaller than managerial optima


14. The job of controlling is carried out by

Ans: All managerial staff

15. Curiosity, manipulation, power, security and status are examples of

Ans: Secondary motives

16. One of the factors below does not determine the size of the unit:

Ans: Level of satisfaction among workers

17. One of the following is not a force which determines the optimum size of the unit :

Ans: Profitability forces

18. The inner state activating and channelling behaviour towards goals is called

Ans: Motive

19. Expectancy theory of motivation was brought out by

Ans: Vroom

20. McClellans's Needs theory explains needs for _____________, affiliation and power.

Ans: Achievement

21. Herzberg's theory consists of __________ and motivational factors.

Ans: Hygiene

22. Theories of leadership include, Trait, Behavioural and

Ans : Situational

23. Likert's four systems of leadership re Exploitative and benevolent Authoritative, Consultative, and

Ans Democratic

24. Situational leadership theory focuses on

Ans: Followers

25. "Ubiquities" and 'Antiquities' are the terms used in the location theory propounded by

Ans: Alfred Weber

26. The concept of "Growth Centres" has been recommended by the

Ans: Sivaraman Committee

27. In group meetings, there will be two phases of inertia, then ______ periods followed by a flurry of activities.

Ans: Transition

28. Coordination an execution of task will be better in

Ans: Small group

29. Most common group decision making technique used is

Ans: Brainstorming

30. The formula for measuring net labour turnover is

Ans: NLT = Total replacements / Average workforce * 100

31. Industrial Disputes Act envisages compulsory adjudication of industrial disputes when

Ans: Government decides by way of reference

32. Among the several methods of settlement of disputes, the best one is

Ans: Collective bargaining

33. The workers participation rate indicates the percentage of

Ans: Total main workers plus marginal workers in the total population

34. India adopted the code of 'discipline' in the year

Ans: 1958

35. The Systems approach to industrial relations was given by

Ans: Dunlop

36. Outsourcing of business operations by MNCs has led to

Ans: Loss in the bargaining strength of labour

37. NEGP refers to

Ans: National Employment Guarantee Programme

38.Who publishes the 'Rural Labour Enquiry Reports' ?

Ans: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour

39. One of the statements given below is true. Pick it up.

Ans: Workers participation in management is possible in unorganized labour

40. EAS refers to

Ans: Employment Assurance Scheme

41. Government of India implemented two schemes to remove the unemployment of youth. They are

Ans : TRYSEM and PMRY

42. One of the following does not come under unorganized labour:

Ans: Handicraft workers

43. Industrial relations is used to describe the nature of relationship between

Ans: Government and industry { Actual answer is Employers, Employees, Government }

44. Labour - Management relations is the Constitutional guarantee in one of the following countries. Which one is it ?

Ans: Japan

45. Collective bargaining is

Ans: A peace treaty between two parties in continual conflicts

46. The bargaining between all the trade unions of workers in the same inustry through their federal organisations and the employers federation is

Ans : Multiple employer bargaining

47. Demand for labour is dependent on one of the following :

Ans: Demand for products made by labour

48. The three-man tripartite committee set up in 1954 is

Ans: Steering Committee on Wages

49. NCL refers to

Ans: National Commission on Labour { Refer Question number 81}

50. ILC refers to

Ans: Indian Labour Conference

51. The main objective of labour legislation is to

Ans : All of these

52. Social security legislation acts include

Ans: Employees State Insurance Act, Employees Provident Fund Act, Payment of Gratuity Act

53. One of the statements given below is incorrect. Pick it up.

Ans: ESI Act is not applicable to private sector employees

54. The other name for unfair labour practice is

Ans: Unfair Labour Victimisation

55. Which of the following is not a measure of efficiency ?

Ans: Capital Employed

56. A group of firms, carrying on similar types of activity is called

Ans: Industry

57. Which of the following is an example for industry's goods ?

Ans: Rice

58. SAIL was established in 1973 as a

Ans: Multi Unit Enterprise

59. A firm, in which existing condition of technique and organising ability, has the lowest average cost of production per unit is called

Ans: Optimum sized firm

60. A small change in sales results in disproportionate change in EBIT, other things being equal, is called

Ans: Operating leverage

61. Clientele effect is relatively more associated with

Ans: Dividend decision

62. Which one of the following is not a motive for holding cash ?

Ans : Profit motive

63. _______ model is an approach that provides for cost-efficient cash balances.

Ans: Baumol model

64. 'Factoring' as a financial service is associated with

Ans: Account Receivable

65. In a JIT environment, the flow of goods is controlled by

Ans: Pull approach

66. A firm in which lower level of current assets is supporting a given level of output is pursuing

Ans: Aggressive working capital policy

67. A policy that involves matching of assets and liability maturity is called

Ans: Hedging policy

68. The ratio that measures the ability of the firm to make committed payments is called

Ans: Debt service coverage ratio

69. Break-even point and margin of safety can be determined by using

Ans: P/V ratio

70. HMT Ltd. is an example of a/an

Ans: Industry

71. One of the following is not a measure of size. Identify.

Ans: Profit

72. Which of the following has government ownership, control and participation in business decisions as an essential feature?

Ans: Public sector organization

73.The concept of joint sector was introduced by Govt. of India on the recommendations of

Ans : Dutt Committee

74. Indian Railways is an example for

Ans: Departmental Undertaking

75. A company in which not less than 51 percent of paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or State Government or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments is a

Ans: Government Company

76. The process of withdrawing one's stake either in full or part by the government is called

Ans: Disinvestment

77. Changes in technology illustrate

Ans: Cyclical changes or Seasonal changes

78. Internal dis-economies of scale happen

Ans: When an increase in the scale of production leads to a higher cost per unit

79. The disguised unemployment refers to

Ans: more persons employed for a job which a few can accomplish

80. The credit for forming the first industrial union in 1918 goes to

Ans: B.P. Wadia

81. Prime benefit accruing to the employees are usually

Ans: Fringe benefits

82. The report of the first National Commission on Labour was submitted in

Ans: 1969

83. During the recent Period nearly 50 percent of GDP is being contributed by

Ans: Services factor

84.The pace of employment growth in the manufacturing sector during the post-reform period has

Ans: increased from 2.06% to 3.0%

85. There is a consistent decline in the mode of employment in

Ans: Regular employment

86. The ratio that indicates what proportion of Earning Per Share has been used for paying dividend is called

Ans: Payout ratio

87. Return of Investment (ROI) is a

Ans: Performance criterion

88. The Liquidity Ratio is satisfactory when it is

Ans: 1 : 1

89. 'Core Working Capital' is more or less of a

Ans: Fixed nature

90. Yield on share is equal to

Ans: DPS/Market price of share * 100

91. The earning power of the company depends upon

Ans: Net profit to capital turnover ratio

92. Cash flow in capital budgeting decision means

Ans: PAT + Depreciation

93. One of the following is not a source of funds. Which is that?

Ans. Decrease in deferred payment liabilities

94. In capital budgeting decisions, the time value of money is considered in case of

Ans: NPV

95. Cost of capital serves as __________ rate for capital investment.

Ans: Cut-off

96. According to traditional approach the cost of capital is affected by

Ans: Debt equity mix

97. Substitution of home-made leverage into corporate leverage is highlighted in capital structure theory of

Ans: Modigliani and Miller

98. Trading on equity implies a ______ debt equity ratio.

Ans: High

99. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by

Ans: William Sharpe

100. Depreciation is included in costs in case of

Ans: Average rate of return

101. Operating profit meas

Ans: Profit before interest and tax

102. Bird-in-hand theory of dividend was advocated by

Ans: Gorden and Lintner

103. The financial transaction wherein an investor purchases a security only for the dividend and sells it after receiving the same is called

Ans: Dividend stripping

104. Projects which compete with each other in capital investment decisions are called

Ans: Mutually exclusive projects

105. Which one of the following is not a capital budgeting decision ?

Ans: Investment in current assets

106. The cost of depreciation generation funds is equal to

Ans: Cost of retained earnings

107. The interest rate that equates the present value of the expected future cash flows to the initial cost outlay is

Ans: IRR