Wednesday, October 27, 2010
Tuesday, October 26, 2010
Monday, October 25, 2010
Saturday, October 23, 2010
Friday, October 22, 2010
Thursday, October 21, 2010
Right Time to Prepare for Civil Services Preliminary Exam 2011
If you have not cleared the Preliminary Exam 2010, don’t buck down by the results. It happens in competitive exams like IAS. It is a part and parcel of the exam process. In a scenario of cut throat competition, someone has to loose. This time you were little bit unlucky.
But before putting all blame on your luck or your friends or teachers, you need a serious retrospection of your past performances. So now time to analyze yourself. Analyze that while preparing for the last PT exam, you have studied the right books, right materials; you have done smart hard work; you have gone through previous year UPSC questions; you have practised a lot of questions before the exam etc. If you are really honest to yourself, you will definitely find some wrong in you only. So mark those areas where you have failed in your last attempt and promise to yourself that you will never repeat those mistakes. After all, failure is the pillar of success, if you learn from your past failures.
It is time for reconsolidation. Consolidate yourself and make a full-proof strategy for coming PT in 2011. As all of you have heard that most probably UPSC will introduce Aptitude Test from next year, you need slight changes in your preparation this time. First focus on Mains as it covers around 70-80% of your PT requirements. From now onwards you should concentrate on your second option for Mains exam along with General Studies. Devoted two month (September and October) for your second optional for Mains and General Studies Paper I for Mains. Next two months (November and December) should be devoted to first optional for Mains and General Studies Paper II for mains. This is just a broad outline; you may change it according to your needs and suitability.
However, make sure that while preparing for Mains, you prepare your own notes which will help you in timely revision of your syllabus in the last munities. Also ensure that you are doing timely revision of what you have studied, otherwise that will be of no use.
UPSC notification for PT normally comes in December. By that time you have already completed the Mains syllabus. So after notification you should focus on PT.
Wednesday, October 20, 2010
LAW QUESTIONS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
1. Who administers oath to the Governor of a State?
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(C) Advocate General of the State
(D) None of the Above
2. A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 22
3. Which of the following protects personal freedom?
(A) Quo-warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habehs Corpus
(D) Certiorari
4. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as?
(A) A Socialist Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(D) A None of the above
5. Who among the following, was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) M. K Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
6. Power granted to a Court under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure is known as?
(A) Inherent power
(B) Appellate power
(C) Revisional power
(D) Reviewing power
7. An application for amendment of pleadings is filed under?
(A) Order 6 Rule 17
(B) Order 6 Rule 5
(C) Order 38 Rule 5
(D) Order 21 Rule 1
8. Provisions with regard to res judicata are provided in Section…….. of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 100
(D) Section 11
9. A person instituting a suit in ‘form of a pauper’ is known as?
(A) Intelligent person
(B) Juristic person
(C) First person
(D) Indigent person
10. A suit shall be instituted in a Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction?
(A) The plaintiff resides
(B) The Stamp Paper for entering into the contract was purchased
(C) Where no cause of action in part or full arose
(D) Where the cause of action wholly or in part arose
11. An Agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is a?
(A) Legal Contract
(B) Voidable Contract
(C) Fraudulent Contract
(D) Void Contract
12. ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other, before the time fixed for the marriage, ‘A’ goes mad, the contract becomes?
(A) Voidable Contract
(B) Conditional Contract
(C) Contingent Contract
(D) Void Contract
13. ‘A’ proposes by a letter to sell his house to ‘B’ for certain price, communication of this proposal is complete when?
(A) ‘A’ dispatches the letter
(B) ‘A’ has completed writing the letter
(C) ‘B’ gets information about posting of the letter
(D) ‘B’ receives the letter
14. Where the order in which reciprocal promises are to be per formed is expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order;
and where the order is not expressly fixed it shall be performed?
(A) In that order which the nature of transaction requires
(B) In the order as one of the parties prefer
(C) As desired by the proposal
(D) None of the above
15. ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in public service and ‘B’ promises to pay Rs. 1,000 to ‘A’, the agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(A) Is Legal and proper
(B) Can be enforced at the instance of ‘B’
(C) Is Void agreement
(D) None of the above
16. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with the third person is?
(A) A principal
(B) A pawnor
(C) An agent
(D) A Bailor
17. Insurance is a?
(A) Contingent contract
(B) Wagering contract
(C) Contract of indemnity
(D) Contract of guarantee Indian Evidence Act, 1872
18. Copies made from or compared with the original is?
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Inadmissible evidence
(D) None of these
19. Whether confession made to a Police Officer (while not in custody) by an accused of an offence can be proved against him and is
a Evidence?
(A) Admissible
(B) Not admissible
(C) Partially admissible
(D) None of these
20. The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay?
(A) Dying declaration
(B) Res gestae
(C) Medical expert’s Opinion
(D) Confession
21. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket, the proving that he had a ticket is on?
(A) Prosecution
(B) Accused
(C) Complainant
(D) Prosecution witness
Questions based on The Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
22.Amongst the following who is not a Revenue Officer as defined under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(A) Commissioner
(B) Collector
(C) Settlement Officer
(D)Chairman, Board of Revenue
23. Revision powers are exercised by the Board of Revenue under of the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code.
(A) Section 40
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
24. A Bhumiswami can seek partition of his agricultural land amongst his legal heirs during his life time by applying to the?
(A) Patwari
(B) Village Kotwar
(C) Tahsildar
(D) Superintendent of Land Record
25. Which amongst the following is not the duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(A) To collect and pay Land Revenue into the Gram Kosh
(B) To furnish reports regarding state of his village
(C) To prevent encroachment on waste land, public path and roadways
(D) To maintain land records
26, Who is competent to transfer a revenue case from one District to another under Section 29 of the M. P. Land Revenue Code?
(A) State Government
(B) Board of Revenue
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) Revenue Minister
27. If a Bhumiswami is dispossessed of the land otherwise then in due course of law who can be ordered for restoration of the possession?
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Commissioner
(C) Collector
(D) S.D.O.
28. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by the?
(A) Patwari
(8) Kotwar
(C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Tahsildar
29. Which one of the following matter is not provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and condi tions on which?
(A) Grazing of cattle in the village is permissible
(B) The right to fishing may be obtained by a resident
(C) Wood, Timber or fuel may be obtained by a resident
(D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand may be obtained by a resident
30……. is not defined in the Code?
(A) Orchard
(B) Arrears
(C) Cooperative Society
(D) Ailuvion
Specific Relief Act, 1963
31. The relief provided under the Specific Relief Act, is?
(A) Discretionary
(B) Mandatory
(C) Statutory
(D) Obligatory
32. In a suit for specific performance of contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if he establishes that?
(A) Prima facie case is in his favour
(B) He was willing and ready to perform his part of the contract
(C) Balance of Convenience is in his favour
(D) He may suffer irreparable loss
33. Find out the correct statement. Specific Relief can be granted?
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law
(B) For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil rights
(C) Only for enforcing penal law
(D) For enforcing civil rights and a penal law
34. No suit for recovery of possession may be instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act?
(A) Against Government
(B) Against a Public Company
(C) Against a Private Company
(D) Against all of these
35. Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions?
(A) Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
(B) Such as are to continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court
(C) Regulated by the Code of Civil Proc
(D) Can not be granted at any stage of a suit
36. In which of the following cases would the specific performance of any contract not be enforced by the Court?
(A) Where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce
(B) Where the property consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market
(C) Where compensation in money can be afforded for non- performance of the contract as an adequate relief
(D) Where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by non- performance of the contract
37. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of Section 14 of the Act?
(A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(B) Contract for the construction of any building or execution of any other work on land
(C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
(D) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any other security for repayment of any loan which the borrower is not willing to repay at once
38. An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the – Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means?
(A) A Negotiable Instrument
(B) A Transferable Instrument
(C) A non-testamentary Instrument
(D) A will
39. Where on a Transfer of-Property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called?
(A) Conditional Transfer
(B) Transfer by Interest
(C) Absolute Transfer
(D) Contingent Transfer
40. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 covers?
(A) Movable Property
(B) Immovable Property
(C) None
(D) (A)and(B)both
41. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact when?
(A) He actually knows the fact
(B) May have knowledge about the fact
(C) Could with reasonable cause to know the fact
(D) Is not at all aware of the fact
42. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is called?
(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) English mortgage
(C) Equitable mortgage
(1)) Usufructuary mortgage
43. Which of the following is not an actionable claim?
(A) Right to a Provident Fund Account
(B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee succeed in L.L.B. examination
(C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee marries a particular woman
(D) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
44……… is defined as a security for repayment of a loan.
(A) Pledge
(B) Mortgage
(C) Lease
(D) None of these
45.The normal term of office of a member nominated to a Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyaya laya Adhiniyam, 1996 is?
(A) Two years
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Six years
46. The State Government establihes Gram Nyayalaya for every?
(A)District
(B) Tahsil
(C)Block
(D) Circle
47. Every person nominated as a member of the Cram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall submit a declaration to the effect that?
(A) He shall continue to be a member of political party
(B) He shall not pay subscription to any political party
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall cease to be a member of political party from the date he assumes office
48. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the MY. Gram Nyayalaya, 1996 is not empowered to inquire or to try an offence under Section?
(A) 326 I.P.C.
(B) 323 I.P.C.
(C) 336 J.P.C.
(D) 426 I.P.C.
49. A Gram Nyayalaya shall not have exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam 1996 to
inquire and try offences under?
(A) Cattle Trespass Act
(B) M P. Juvenile Smoking Act
(C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
(D) Secton 13 of the Public Gambling Act
50. A Cram Nyayalaya should make endeavour to?
(A) Compromise a dispute
(B) Should not compromise
(C) Should make endeavour to punish the wrong doer
(D) None of the above
51. If a landlord contravenes the provision of Sub-section (1) of Section 38 of the M. P. Accom odation Control Act, he shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend
To?
(A) Two years
(B) Six months
(C) One month
(D) Three months
52. A suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide need for non-residential purpose is covered under Section of the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act.
(A)12(1)(a)
(B) 12(lb)
(C)12(1)(e)
(D) 12(1)(f)
53. The special provision for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement of a land lord as provided under Chapter
III-Aof the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act is applicable to?
(A) A widow or a divorced wife
(B) A woman in employment in non-governmental establishment
(C) A married woman living with her husband
(D) A business woman
54. Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961 is not applicable to?
(A) Accommodation which is used for non-residential purpose
(B) Accommodation which is the property of the Government
(C) Accommodation which is the property of a widow
(D) Accommodation which is the property of a minor children
55. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds specified under Section 12(1)(e) or 12(l)(f), unless a period of . . . . has elapsed from the date of acquisition.
(A) Or year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years
56. An appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control
Act, 1961?
(A) District Judge
(B) Collector
(C) Commissioner
(D) High Court
57. Which of the following act cannot form ground of eviction of the tenant?
(A) Nuisance
(B) Disclaimer of the title of the landlord
(C) Material structural alteration
(D) Holding over
58. Anticipatory bail under Section438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means?
(A) A direction to release a person on bail issued after a person is arrested
(B) A direction to release a person on bail issued even before a person is arrested or is in apprehension of arrest
(C) A direction to release a person on bail from judicial custody
(D) A direction to release a person on bail when he is in police custody after being arrested
59. Inherent Powers under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be exercised by?
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) High Court
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
60. Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Section 149
(B) Section 154
(C) Section 155
(D) Section 200
61.A ……….is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(A) Wife unable to maintain herself
(B) Divorced wife (not re married)
(C) Minor daughter
(D) Divorced wife re-married
62. The Court of Magistrate of the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term?
(A) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000
(B) Not exceeding one year or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
(C) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
(D) Not exceeding seven years or a fine prescribed under the code
63. An offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means as provided under Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code is?
(A) Compoundable
(B) Non-Compoundable
(C) Compoundable with the permission of Court
(D) None of the above
64. An inquest report must contain?
(A) The names of accused
(B) The apparent cause-of death
(C) The details of weapons
(D) The details of incident
65. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.C., postponing the issue of process against the accused?
(A) Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
(B) May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
(C) Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his wit nesses and examine them on oath
(D) Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session Indian Penal Code
66. A person himself does not commit an offence, he helps or aids another person, he is guilty o?
(A) Abetment
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Incitement
(D) None of these
67 ………of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘Murder’.
(A) Section 299
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 301
(D) Section 302
68. Which of the following is not ‘Public Servant’ within the meaning of Section 21 of the Code?
(A) Municipal Commissioner
(B) Memberof Parliament
(C) MLA
(D) Examiner of University
69. A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an?
(A) Unmarried woman
(B). Married woman except his wife
(C) Any woman except his wife
(D) Unmarried woman without her consent
70. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative of husband is defined under?
(A) Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code
Answers:
(A) President of India
(B) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(C) Advocate General of the State
(D) None of the Above
2. A person whose fundamental rights are violated can move the High Court under?
(A) Article 20
(B) Article 226
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 22
3. Which of the following protects personal freedom?
(A) Quo-warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habehs Corpus
(D) Certiorari
4. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as?
(A) A Socialist Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(D) A None of the above
5. Who among the following, was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) M. K Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
6. Power granted to a Court under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure is known as?
(A) Inherent power
(B) Appellate power
(C) Revisional power
(D) Reviewing power
7. An application for amendment of pleadings is filed under?
(A) Order 6 Rule 17
(B) Order 6 Rule 5
(C) Order 38 Rule 5
(D) Order 21 Rule 1
8. Provisions with regard to res judicata are provided in Section…….. of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 12
(C) Section 100
(D) Section 11
9. A person instituting a suit in ‘form of a pauper’ is known as?
(A) Intelligent person
(B) Juristic person
(C) First person
(D) Indigent person
10. A suit shall be instituted in a Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction?
(A) The plaintiff resides
(B) The Stamp Paper for entering into the contract was purchased
(C) Where no cause of action in part or full arose
(D) Where the cause of action wholly or in part arose
11. An Agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is a?
(A) Legal Contract
(B) Voidable Contract
(C) Fraudulent Contract
(D) Void Contract
12. ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other, before the time fixed for the marriage, ‘A’ goes mad, the contract becomes?
(A) Voidable Contract
(B) Conditional Contract
(C) Contingent Contract
(D) Void Contract
13. ‘A’ proposes by a letter to sell his house to ‘B’ for certain price, communication of this proposal is complete when?
(A) ‘A’ dispatches the letter
(B) ‘A’ has completed writing the letter
(C) ‘B’ gets information about posting of the letter
(D) ‘B’ receives the letter
14. Where the order in which reciprocal promises are to be per formed is expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order;
and where the order is not expressly fixed it shall be performed?
(A) In that order which the nature of transaction requires
(B) In the order as one of the parties prefer
(C) As desired by the proposal
(D) None of the above
15. ‘A’ promises to obtain for ‘B’ an employment in public service and ‘B’ promises to pay Rs. 1,000 to ‘A’, the agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(A) Is Legal and proper
(B) Can be enforced at the instance of ‘B’
(C) Is Void agreement
(D) None of the above
16. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with the third person is?
(A) A principal
(B) A pawnor
(C) An agent
(D) A Bailor
17. Insurance is a?
(A) Contingent contract
(B) Wagering contract
(C) Contract of indemnity
(D) Contract of guarantee Indian Evidence Act, 1872
18. Copies made from or compared with the original is?
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Inadmissible evidence
(D) None of these
19. Whether confession made to a Police Officer (while not in custody) by an accused of an offence can be proved against him and is
a Evidence?
(A) Admissible
(B) Not admissible
(C) Partially admissible
(D) None of these
20. The following is not the exception to the rule of hearsay?
(A) Dying declaration
(B) Res gestae
(C) Medical expert’s Opinion
(D) Confession
21. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket, the proving that he had a ticket is on?
(A) Prosecution
(B) Accused
(C) Complainant
(D) Prosecution witness
Questions based on The Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code
22.Amongst the following who is not a Revenue Officer as defined under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(A) Commissioner
(B) Collector
(C) Settlement Officer
(D)Chairman, Board of Revenue
23. Revision powers are exercised by the Board of Revenue under of the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code.
(A) Section 40
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
24. A Bhumiswami can seek partition of his agricultural land amongst his legal heirs during his life time by applying to the?
(A) Patwari
(B) Village Kotwar
(C) Tahsildar
(D) Superintendent of Land Record
25. Which amongst the following is not the duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(A) To collect and pay Land Revenue into the Gram Kosh
(B) To furnish reports regarding state of his village
(C) To prevent encroachment on waste land, public path and roadways
(D) To maintain land records
26, Who is competent to transfer a revenue case from one District to another under Section 29 of the M. P. Land Revenue Code?
(A) State Government
(B) Board of Revenue
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) Revenue Minister
27. If a Bhumiswami is dispossessed of the land otherwise then in due course of law who can be ordered for restoration of the possession?
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Commissioner
(C) Collector
(D) S.D.O.
28. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by the?
(A) Patwari
(8) Kotwar
(C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Tahsildar
29. Which one of the following matter is not provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and condi tions on which?
(A) Grazing of cattle in the village is permissible
(B) The right to fishing may be obtained by a resident
(C) Wood, Timber or fuel may be obtained by a resident
(D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand may be obtained by a resident
30……. is not defined in the Code?
(A) Orchard
(B) Arrears
(C) Cooperative Society
(D) Ailuvion
Specific Relief Act, 1963
31. The relief provided under the Specific Relief Act, is?
(A) Discretionary
(B) Mandatory
(C) Statutory
(D) Obligatory
32. In a suit for specific performance of contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if he establishes that?
(A) Prima facie case is in his favour
(B) He was willing and ready to perform his part of the contract
(C) Balance of Convenience is in his favour
(D) He may suffer irreparable loss
33. Find out the correct statement. Specific Relief can be granted?
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights and not for enforcing a penal law
(B) For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing civil rights
(C) Only for enforcing penal law
(D) For enforcing civil rights and a penal law
34. No suit for recovery of possession may be instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief Act?
(A) Against Government
(B) Against a Public Company
(C) Against a Private Company
(D) Against all of these
35. Find out the incorrect statement in respect of temporary injunctions?
(A) Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Court
(B) Such as are to continue until a specified time or until the further order of the Court
(C) Regulated by the Code of Civil Proc
(D) Can not be granted at any stage of a suit
36. In which of the following cases would the specific performance of any contract not be enforced by the Court?
(A) Where the property is not an ordinary article of commerce
(B) Where the property consists of goods which are not easily obtainable in the market
(C) Where compensation in money can be afforded for non- performance of the contract as an adequate relief
(D) Where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by non- performance of the contract
37. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced as per the provision of Section 14 of the Act?
(A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(B) Contract for the construction of any building or execution of any other work on land
(C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
(D) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any other security for repayment of any loan which the borrower is not willing to repay at once
38. An instrument as defined under Section 3 of the – Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means?
(A) A Negotiable Instrument
(B) A Transferable Instrument
(C) A non-testamentary Instrument
(D) A will
39. Where on a Transfer of-Property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, the Transfer is called?
(A) Conditional Transfer
(B) Transfer by Interest
(C) Absolute Transfer
(D) Contingent Transfer
40. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 covers?
(A) Movable Property
(B) Immovable Property
(C) None
(D) (A)and(B)both
41. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact when?
(A) He actually knows the fact
(B) May have knowledge about the fact
(C) Could with reasonable cause to know the fact
(D) Is not at all aware of the fact
42. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is called?
(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) English mortgage
(C) Equitable mortgage
(1)) Usufructuary mortgage
43. Which of the following is not an actionable claim?
(A) Right to a Provident Fund Account
(B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee succeed in L.L.B. examination
(C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee marries a particular woman
(D) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with a liability
44……… is defined as a security for repayment of a loan.
(A) Pledge
(B) Mortgage
(C) Lease
(D) None of these
45.The normal term of office of a member nominated to a Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyaya laya Adhiniyam, 1996 is?
(A) Two years
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Six years
46. The State Government establihes Gram Nyayalaya for every?
(A)District
(B) Tahsil
(C)Block
(D) Circle
47. Every person nominated as a member of the Cram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall submit a declaration to the effect that?
(A) He shall continue to be a member of political party
(B) He shall not pay subscription to any political party
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall cease to be a member of political party from the date he assumes office
48. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the MY. Gram Nyayalaya, 1996 is not empowered to inquire or to try an offence under Section?
(A) 326 I.P.C.
(B) 323 I.P.C.
(C) 336 J.P.C.
(D) 426 I.P.C.
49. A Gram Nyayalaya shall not have exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam 1996 to
inquire and try offences under?
(A) Cattle Trespass Act
(B) M P. Juvenile Smoking Act
(C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
(D) Secton 13 of the Public Gambling Act
50. A Cram Nyayalaya should make endeavour to?
(A) Compromise a dispute
(B) Should not compromise
(C) Should make endeavour to punish the wrong doer
(D) None of the above
51. If a landlord contravenes the provision of Sub-section (1) of Section 38 of the M. P. Accom odation Control Act, he shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend
To?
(A) Two years
(B) Six months
(C) One month
(D) Three months
52. A suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide need for non-residential purpose is covered under Section of the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act.
(A)12(1)(a)
(B) 12(lb)
(C)12(1)(e)
(D) 12(1)(f)
53. The special provision for eviction of a tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement of a land lord as provided under Chapter
III-Aof the Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act is applicable to?
(A) A widow or a divorced wife
(B) A woman in employment in non-governmental establishment
(C) A married woman living with her husband
(D) A business woman
54. Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act, 1961 is not applicable to?
(A) Accommodation which is used for non-residential purpose
(B) Accommodation which is the property of the Government
(C) Accommodation which is the property of a widow
(D) Accommodation which is the property of a minor children
55. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall be maintainable on the grounds specified under Section 12(1)(e) or 12(l)(f), unless a period of . . . . has elapsed from the date of acquisition.
(A) Or year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years
56. An appeal shall lie from every order of the Rent Controlling Authority made under Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control
Act, 1961?
(A) District Judge
(B) Collector
(C) Commissioner
(D) High Court
57. Which of the following act cannot form ground of eviction of the tenant?
(A) Nuisance
(B) Disclaimer of the title of the landlord
(C) Material structural alteration
(D) Holding over
58. Anticipatory bail under Section438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means?
(A) A direction to release a person on bail issued after a person is arrested
(B) A direction to release a person on bail issued even before a person is arrested or is in apprehension of arrest
(C) A direction to release a person on bail from judicial custody
(D) A direction to release a person on bail when he is in police custody after being arrested
59. Inherent Powers under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be exercised by?
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) High Court
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
60. Information regarding occurrence of a cognizable offence is recorded by an officer Incharge of a Police Station under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Section 149
(B) Section 154
(C) Section 155
(D) Section 200
61.A ……….is not entitled to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(A) Wife unable to maintain herself
(B) Divorced wife (not re married)
(C) Minor daughter
(D) Divorced wife re-married
62. The Court of Magistrate of the First Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term?
(A) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 10,000
(B) Not exceeding one year or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
(C) Not exceeding three years or a fine not exceeding Rs. 5,000
(D) Not exceeding seven years or a fine prescribed under the code
63. An offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means as provided under Section 326 of the Indian Penal Code is?
(A) Compoundable
(B) Non-Compoundable
(C) Compoundable with the permission of Court
(D) None of the above
64. An inquest report must contain?
(A) The names of accused
(B) The apparent cause-of death
(C) The details of weapons
(D) The details of incident
65. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr. P.C., postponing the issue of process against the accused?
(A) Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
(B) May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
(C) Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his wit nesses and examine them on oath
(D) Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of Session Indian Penal Code
66. A person himself does not commit an offence, he helps or aids another person, he is guilty o?
(A) Abetment
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Incitement
(D) None of these
67 ………of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘Murder’.
(A) Section 299
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 301
(D) Section 302
68. Which of the following is not ‘Public Servant’ within the meaning of Section 21 of the Code?
(A) Municipal Commissioner
(B) Memberof Parliament
(C) MLA
(D) Examiner of University
69. A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an?
(A) Unmarried woman
(B). Married woman except his wife
(C) Any woman except his wife
(D) Unmarried woman without her consent
70. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relative of husband is defined under?
(A) Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code
Answers:
| 1 | B |
| 2 | B |
| 3 | C |
| 4 | B |
| 5 | A |
| 6 | A |
| 7 | A |
| 8 | D |
| 9 | D |
| 10 | D |
| 11 | D |
| 12 | D |
| 13 | D |
| 14 | A |
| 15 | C |
| 16 | C |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | B |
| 19 | B |
| 20 | C |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | D |
| 23 | D |
| 24 | C |
| 25 | D |
| 26 | B |
| 27 | A |
| 28 | C |
| 29 | B |
| 30 | D |
| 31 | C |
| 32 | C |
| 33 | A |
| 34 | A |
| 35 | D |
| 36 | C |
| 37 | C |
| 38 | C |
| 39 | D |
| 40 | D |
| 41 | A |
| 42 | C |
| 43 | D |
| 44 | B |
| 45 | C |
| 46 | D |
| 47 | C |
| 48 | A |
| 49 | C |
| 50 | A |
| 51 | D |
| 52 | D |
| 53 | A |
| 54 | B |
| 55 | A |
| 56 | A |
| 57 | A |
| 58 | A |
| 59 | C |
| 60 | B |
| 61 | D |
| 62 | A |
| 63 | B |
| 64 | B |
| 65 | C |
| 66 | A |
| 67 | B |
| 68 | D |
| 69 | B |
| 70 | A |
LAW QUESTIONS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
Q. 1. Which one of the following propositions is not correct?
(a) Physical control is the essence of ownership
(b) Animus and corpus are necessary to constitute possession
(c) Only when both animus and corpus are lost, possession is lost—so said Paul
(d) Possession, is the prima-facie evidence of ownership
Ans. (a)
Q. 2. In which one of the following cases, is the President of India not bound by the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers?
(a) In deciding the question of removal of a Governor
(b) In deciding the question whether a member of Lok Sabha has become disqualified to continue as a member
(c) While exercising power to grant pardon
(d) In dismissing a civil servant without any enquiry and hearing on the ground of security of state
Ans. (b)
Q.3. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to any dispute between
(a) the Government of India and one or more States
(b) two or more States
(c) the Government of India and any State of States on one side and one or more other States on the other
(d) a State and a State corporation
Ans: (d)
Q.4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A Private clause means
(a) statutory provisions which purport to oust the inherent jurisdiction of the superior court to review the legality of actions taken by statutory delegates.
(b) Henry VIII clause
(c) a provision conferring power of judicial review on quasi-judicial tribunal
(d) a provision depriving a private party from filing a write petition
Ans. (b)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is the correct statement? After exhausting all available remedies before the Supreme Court, a “Curative” Petition is maintainable as held in:
(a) Ashok Hurra case
(b) A.R. Antulay case
(c) Best Bakery case
(d) Fodder Scam case
Ans. (a)
Q.6. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The writ of certiorari can not be issued to quash
(a) an order suffering from failure to exercise jurisdiction
(b) an order based on insufficient evidence
(c) a non-speaking order passed by a quasijudicial body
(d) an order suffering from non-compliance with the prescribed procedure
Ans: (c)
Q. 7. In which one of the following case; did the Supreme Court rule that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts in respect of the decisions given by the Service Tribunals, cannot be ousted or excluded even by a Constitutional Amendment?
(a) High Court of Judicature at Bombay v. Shirish Kumar
(b) Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
(c) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(d) All India Judges Association v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Which one of the following is not within the purview of the functions of Public Service Commissions?
(a) Consultation relating to recruitment to civil services
(b) Consultation in relation to promotions and transfers from one service to the other
(c) Consultation in relation to reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward classes of citizens
(d) Consultation in relation to disciplinary matters affecting civil servants
Ans. (c)
Q. 9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) No law made by a State legislature shall be treated as unconstitutional if it incidentally touches upon the jurisdiction provides for under List I or List III.
(b) The legislature of a State cannot make a law to regulate “Water”.
(c) The law, made by Parliament under Article 357 for a State continues its application after the expiry of President’s rule.
(d) Parliament has full power to make law on residuary matter.
Ans. (b)
Q. 10. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The theory of repugnancy has application in a case where
(a) both Union and State occupy two different fields in different Lists
(b) both Union and State laws are enacted under the Concurrent List
(c) the Union law is enacted under List II and State law is enacted under List II
(d) the Union and State laws enacted under the State List
Ans. (b)
Q. 11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period
(a) not exceeding six months
(b) not exceeding two years
(c) not exceeding one year
(d) of unlimited time
Ans. (c)
Q. 12. If any directions are issued by Union Government to a State and they have not been .complied with, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It shall be presumed that the constitutional. machinery in the State failed as per Article 365 of the Constitution
(b) It shall be presumed that the State had law and order problem and action under Article 365 is required
(c) The Union Government can appoint advisers to help the Governor for performing his functions
(d) The Parliamentary may make law for that State
Ans. (a)
Q. 13.
Which one of the following is the correct statement? “Full faith and Credit” clause of the Constitution does not apply to:
(a) public records
(b) judicial proceedings
(c) acts of corporations
(d) public acts
Ans. (c)
Q. 14. Which one of the following is the correct statement? In Special Reference No. 1 of 2002, it was held that:
(a) a person convicted for an offence and punished with imprisonment of two years or more was disqualified to be appointed as Chief Minister of a State
(b) the imposition of President’s rule was not mandatory even if there was a gap of more than six months between two sessions of the Legislative Assembly if the Legislative Assembly had been dissolved
(c) the advice of Chief Justice of India regarding the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court shall be binding on the President
(d) the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is. binding on all courts and authorities
Ans. (b)
Q. 15. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The power of Indian Parliament to amend the
Constitution of India as a constitutional power was
laid down under Article 368 by
(a) the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
(b) the Constitution (Twenty fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
(c) the Constitution (Twenty sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
(d) the Constitution (Forty second Amendment) Act, 1976
Ans. (b)
Q. 16. Consider the following statements relating to the President of India
1. He may resign by writing to the Vice-President.
2. He shall continue, not withstanding the expiration of his term, to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
3. He is not entitled to hold the office for more than two terms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3, only
(b) 1 and 2, only
(c) l, 2and3.
(d) 2and3, only
Ans. (b)
Q.17.Consider the following statements
l. The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment.
2. The Governor cannot commute death sentence to life imprisonment.
3. The President’s power to pardon extends to punishments or sentences b9 court martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3, only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) .2 and 3, only
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. Assertion (A) It shall be the duty of the Union and the State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments.
Reason (R): The functions of Public Service Commissions are only advisory and not obligatory upon the government to act upon.
Ans. (a)
Q. 19. Consider the following statements
Article 286 of the Constitution of India provides that no law of a State shall impose, or authorize the imposition of a tax on the sale or purchase of goods where such sale or purchase
1. takes place even within the territory of the State.
2. takes’ place in the course of the import of the goods into, or export of the goods out of, the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans. (b)
Q. 20. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The Supreme Court can over-rule itself
(b) A High Court can over-rule itself
(c) Obiter dicta of the Supreme Court also binds the lower courts
(d) Judgments of a High Court do not bind the lower courts of the State
Ans. (d)
Q. 21. In which one of the following cases Supreme Court had held that “States” do not enjoy sovereignty under the Indian Constitution as it does not provide for a federal character in the strict sense?
(a) in re Berubari Union
(b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India
(c) State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Chamarbagwala
(d) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
Ans. (b)
Q. 22. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares the resolve of the people of India to secure to all its citizens.
(a) freedom of residence anywhere in the country
(b) right to establish and administer educational institutions of choice
(c) liberty of belief, faith and worship
Ans. (c)
Q. 23. Match List-I with List-IT and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Liberty of thought 1. Right to freedom and expression
B. Freedom of speech 2. and expression
C.Making special provision
for women and children 3. Preamble provision for women
and children
D. Protection of interest 4.Life and liberty of minorities
5. Right to equality
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 5 2
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans. (a)
Q. 24. Match List-I (Judicial. Principle) with List-II (Decision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Judicial Principle) (Decision)
A. Preamble 1. State of Orissa v. Miss Binapani Dei
B. Natural Justice 2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Right to Life 3. Mohini v. State of Karnataka
D. Right to Education 4. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar
5. Bhim Singh v. State of J & K
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 5 1
Ans. (c)
Q. 25. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in:
(a) the Right to Freedom
(b) the Right to Personal Liberty
(c) the Right to Equality
(d) the Right against Exploitation
Ans. (b)
Q. 26. Which one of the following is not expressly covered as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to form association
(b) Right to equality before law
(c) Right to freedom of press
(d) Right to assemble peaceable and without arms
Ans. (c)
Q.27. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Double Jeopardy means
(a) trying two persons jointly for the same offence
(b) trying the same person for So offences at two different times
(c) putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence.
(d) trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident
Ans. (c)
Q. 28. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that air waves and frequencies were public property and their use must be regulated by a public authority?
(a) Air India v. Nergesh Mirza
(b) Secretary, Ministry of I & B v. Cricket Association of Bengal
(c) Peoples’ Union Of Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(d) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms
Ans: (b)
Q. 29. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The writ of Mandamus can be issued
(a) against the legislature for making law
(b) for performance of a public duty
(c) for exercise of discretionary powers
(d) for deciding legality of an arrest
Ans. (b)
Q. 30. ‘A’ took an electric tandoor from B & Co. on rent. In the rent agreement there was a clause to the effect that the company shall not be liable for any personal injury to the hirer or to any other person while using it. However, due to defect in the tandoor, A’s wife was injured. She brought an action against B & Co.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) She cannot succeed but ‘A’ can claim damages from B & Co.
(b) She cannot succeed as there was no contract between her and the Co.
(c) She would succeed
(d) She cannot succeed due to exemption clause
Ans. (c)
Q. 31 Match List-I (Maxim) with List-II (Case) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
(Maxim) (Case)
A. Injuria sine damno 1. Gloucester Grammar School Case
B. Damnuin sine injuria 2. Bird v. Holbrook
C. Res ipsa loquitur 3. Ashby v. White
D. Volenti non fil injuria 4. Byrne v. Boadle
5. Davies v. Mann
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 2
Ans: (b)
Q. 32. Consider the following statements For making occupier or owner of a land liable on the basis of strict liability rule certain essential factors are
1. Keeping of a dangerous thing on his land.
2. non-natural use of land.
3. use of thing for common benefit.
4. escape of thing from his control.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4, only
Ans. (c)
Q. 33. On a rainy and windy day a live wire snapped from an electric pole. Mohan did not notice the wire and rode his bicycle over the wire. He got electrocuted and died. His widow brought an action for damages against the Electricity Board.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The Board is
(a) not liable as wire snapped due to act of God
(b) liable and basis of liability is the foreseeable risk inherent in the very nature of such activity
(c) not liable as it has statutory duty to supply electricity
(d) not liable as negligence on its part is nor proved
Ans: (b)
Q. 34.In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court laid down that where the enterprise is engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities and harm results to any one on account of accident, the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by such accident ?
(a) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India
(d) Pondyal v. Union of India
Ans. (b)
Q. 35. Consider the following statements:
In case of joint publication of defamatory statement:
1. a corporation is liable for the malice of its agent.
2. the proprietor of a newspaper is liable for the malice of the editor.
3. a lawyer is liable for the malice in the notice issued under the instructions of his client.
4. the employer is liable for the malice of h typist who types a defamatory letter as dictated by his employer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Q. 36. Two dogs, belonging to two different persons, acting in concert attacked a flock of sheep and injured them.
Which one of the following is the correct statement? In an action for damages
(a) one of them is liable for one-half of the damage caused by his dog
(b) each of them is liable for lull damage caused by their dogs
(c) none of them is liable for full damage caused by their dogs
(d) each of them is liable proportional damage caused by. their dogs
Ans. (b)
Q. 37. Which of the following situations relate to joint liability?
1. When one person employs another to do an act which turns out to be a tort.
2. Master engages a servant ‘to do an act which amounts to tort.
3. Two or mote persons combine together to do an act amounting to tort.
4. Two or more persons do wrongful act resulting in one damage.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1 and 2, only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q. 38. What does tort of negligence mean?
(a) Doing an act by failing to take reasonable care which a prudent man would take in similar circumstances
(b) Doing an act with intention to cause harm to others
(c) Doing an act without displaying mental alertness
(d) Doing an act with forgetfulness
Ans: (a)
Q. 39. Due to negligence of railway authorities, there was a major train accident. On hearing and seeing the news of the accident on TV mother of one of the passengers traveling in the train sustained severe shock resulting in heart attack. She claimed damages from the railways for the shock she sustained.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Railway authority is not liable as
(a) she was not directly involved in the accident
(b) she was not traveling in the train
(c) she cannot prove negligence of the railway authorities
(d) there exist no direct relation in term of time and space between the accident and the shock she sustained
Ans. (d)
Q.40. Consider the following statements:
For defamation the plaintiff has to prove that the imputation is false and malicious. In this context malicious means
1. with evil motive.
2. without just cause and excuse.
3. a factor relevant in assessment of damages.
4. an irrelevant plea of defamation.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 2only
(d) 2,3and4
Ans: (a)
(a) Physical control is the essence of ownership
(b) Animus and corpus are necessary to constitute possession
(c) Only when both animus and corpus are lost, possession is lost—so said Paul
(d) Possession, is the prima-facie evidence of ownership
Ans. (a)
Q. 2. In which one of the following cases, is the President of India not bound by the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers?
(a) In deciding the question of removal of a Governor
(b) In deciding the question whether a member of Lok Sabha has become disqualified to continue as a member
(c) While exercising power to grant pardon
(d) In dismissing a civil servant without any enquiry and hearing on the ground of security of state
Ans. (b)
Q.3. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to any dispute between
(a) the Government of India and one or more States
(b) two or more States
(c) the Government of India and any State of States on one side and one or more other States on the other
(d) a State and a State corporation
Ans: (d)
Q.4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A Private clause means
(a) statutory provisions which purport to oust the inherent jurisdiction of the superior court to review the legality of actions taken by statutory delegates.
(b) Henry VIII clause
(c) a provision conferring power of judicial review on quasi-judicial tribunal
(d) a provision depriving a private party from filing a write petition
Ans. (b)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is the correct statement? After exhausting all available remedies before the Supreme Court, a “Curative” Petition is maintainable as held in:
(a) Ashok Hurra case
(b) A.R. Antulay case
(c) Best Bakery case
(d) Fodder Scam case
Ans. (a)
Q.6. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The writ of certiorari can not be issued to quash
(a) an order suffering from failure to exercise jurisdiction
(b) an order based on insufficient evidence
(c) a non-speaking order passed by a quasijudicial body
(d) an order suffering from non-compliance with the prescribed procedure
Ans: (c)
Q. 7. In which one of the following case; did the Supreme Court rule that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts in respect of the decisions given by the Service Tribunals, cannot be ousted or excluded even by a Constitutional Amendment?
(a) High Court of Judicature at Bombay v. Shirish Kumar
(b) Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
(c) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(d) All India Judges Association v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Which one of the following is not within the purview of the functions of Public Service Commissions?
(a) Consultation relating to recruitment to civil services
(b) Consultation in relation to promotions and transfers from one service to the other
(c) Consultation in relation to reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward classes of citizens
(d) Consultation in relation to disciplinary matters affecting civil servants
Ans. (c)
Q. 9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) No law made by a State legislature shall be treated as unconstitutional if it incidentally touches upon the jurisdiction provides for under List I or List III.
(b) The legislature of a State cannot make a law to regulate “Water”.
(c) The law, made by Parliament under Article 357 for a State continues its application after the expiry of President’s rule.
(d) Parliament has full power to make law on residuary matter.
Ans. (b)
Q. 10. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The theory of repugnancy has application in a case where
(a) both Union and State occupy two different fields in different Lists
(b) both Union and State laws are enacted under the Concurrent List
(c) the Union law is enacted under List II and State law is enacted under List II
(d) the Union and State laws enacted under the State List
Ans. (b)
Q. 11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period
(a) not exceeding six months
(b) not exceeding two years
(c) not exceeding one year
(d) of unlimited time
Ans. (c)
Q. 12. If any directions are issued by Union Government to a State and they have not been .complied with, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It shall be presumed that the constitutional. machinery in the State failed as per Article 365 of the Constitution
(b) It shall be presumed that the State had law and order problem and action under Article 365 is required
(c) The Union Government can appoint advisers to help the Governor for performing his functions
(d) The Parliamentary may make law for that State
Ans. (a)
Q. 13.
Which one of the following is the correct statement? “Full faith and Credit” clause of the Constitution does not apply to:
(a) public records
(b) judicial proceedings
(c) acts of corporations
(d) public acts
Ans. (c)
Q. 14. Which one of the following is the correct statement? In Special Reference No. 1 of 2002, it was held that:
(a) a person convicted for an offence and punished with imprisonment of two years or more was disqualified to be appointed as Chief Minister of a State
(b) the imposition of President’s rule was not mandatory even if there was a gap of more than six months between two sessions of the Legislative Assembly if the Legislative Assembly had been dissolved
(c) the advice of Chief Justice of India regarding the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court shall be binding on the President
(d) the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is. binding on all courts and authorities
Ans. (b)
Q. 15. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The power of Indian Parliament to amend the
Constitution of India as a constitutional power was
laid down under Article 368 by
(a) the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
(b) the Constitution (Twenty fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
(c) the Constitution (Twenty sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
(d) the Constitution (Forty second Amendment) Act, 1976
Ans. (b)
Q. 16. Consider the following statements relating to the President of India
1. He may resign by writing to the Vice-President.
2. He shall continue, not withstanding the expiration of his term, to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
3. He is not entitled to hold the office for more than two terms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3, only
(b) 1 and 2, only
(c) l, 2and3.
(d) 2and3, only
Ans. (b)
Q.17.Consider the following statements
l. The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment.
2. The Governor cannot commute death sentence to life imprisonment.
3. The President’s power to pardon extends to punishments or sentences b9 court martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3, only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) .2 and 3, only
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. Assertion (A) It shall be the duty of the Union and the State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments.
Reason (R): The functions of Public Service Commissions are only advisory and not obligatory upon the government to act upon.
Ans. (a)
Q. 19. Consider the following statements
Article 286 of the Constitution of India provides that no law of a State shall impose, or authorize the imposition of a tax on the sale or purchase of goods where such sale or purchase
1. takes place even within the territory of the State.
2. takes’ place in the course of the import of the goods into, or export of the goods out of, the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans. (b)
Q. 20. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The Supreme Court can over-rule itself
(b) A High Court can over-rule itself
(c) Obiter dicta of the Supreme Court also binds the lower courts
(d) Judgments of a High Court do not bind the lower courts of the State
Ans. (d)
Q. 21. In which one of the following cases Supreme Court had held that “States” do not enjoy sovereignty under the Indian Constitution as it does not provide for a federal character in the strict sense?
(a) in re Berubari Union
(b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India
(c) State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Chamarbagwala
(d) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
Ans. (b)
Q. 22. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares the resolve of the people of India to secure to all its citizens.
(a) freedom of residence anywhere in the country
(b) right to establish and administer educational institutions of choice
(c) liberty of belief, faith and worship
Ans. (c)
Q. 23. Match List-I with List-IT and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Liberty of thought 1. Right to freedom and expression
B. Freedom of speech 2. and expression
C.Making special provision
for women and children 3. Preamble provision for women
and children
D. Protection of interest 4.Life and liberty of minorities
5. Right to equality
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 5 2
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans. (a)
Q. 24. Match List-I (Judicial. Principle) with List-II (Decision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Judicial Principle) (Decision)
A. Preamble 1. State of Orissa v. Miss Binapani Dei
B. Natural Justice 2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Right to Life 3. Mohini v. State of Karnataka
D. Right to Education 4. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar
5. Bhim Singh v. State of J & K
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 5 1
Ans. (c)
Q. 25. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in:
(a) the Right to Freedom
(b) the Right to Personal Liberty
(c) the Right to Equality
(d) the Right against Exploitation
Ans. (b)
Q. 26. Which one of the following is not expressly covered as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to form association
(b) Right to equality before law
(c) Right to freedom of press
(d) Right to assemble peaceable and without arms
Ans. (c)
Q.27. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Double Jeopardy means
(a) trying two persons jointly for the same offence
(b) trying the same person for So offences at two different times
(c) putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence.
(d) trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident
Ans. (c)
Q. 28. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that air waves and frequencies were public property and their use must be regulated by a public authority?
(a) Air India v. Nergesh Mirza
(b) Secretary, Ministry of I & B v. Cricket Association of Bengal
(c) Peoples’ Union Of Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(d) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms
Ans: (b)
Q. 29. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The writ of Mandamus can be issued
(a) against the legislature for making law
(b) for performance of a public duty
(c) for exercise of discretionary powers
(d) for deciding legality of an arrest
Ans. (b)
Q. 30. ‘A’ took an electric tandoor from B & Co. on rent. In the rent agreement there was a clause to the effect that the company shall not be liable for any personal injury to the hirer or to any other person while using it. However, due to defect in the tandoor, A’s wife was injured. She brought an action against B & Co.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) She cannot succeed but ‘A’ can claim damages from B & Co.
(b) She cannot succeed as there was no contract between her and the Co.
(c) She would succeed
(d) She cannot succeed due to exemption clause
Ans. (c)
Q. 31 Match List-I (Maxim) with List-II (Case) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
(Maxim) (Case)
A. Injuria sine damno 1. Gloucester Grammar School Case
B. Damnuin sine injuria 2. Bird v. Holbrook
C. Res ipsa loquitur 3. Ashby v. White
D. Volenti non fil injuria 4. Byrne v. Boadle
5. Davies v. Mann
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 2
Ans: (b)
Q. 32. Consider the following statements For making occupier or owner of a land liable on the basis of strict liability rule certain essential factors are
1. Keeping of a dangerous thing on his land.
2. non-natural use of land.
3. use of thing for common benefit.
4. escape of thing from his control.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4, only
Ans. (c)
Q. 33. On a rainy and windy day a live wire snapped from an electric pole. Mohan did not notice the wire and rode his bicycle over the wire. He got electrocuted and died. His widow brought an action for damages against the Electricity Board.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The Board is
(a) not liable as wire snapped due to act of God
(b) liable and basis of liability is the foreseeable risk inherent in the very nature of such activity
(c) not liable as it has statutory duty to supply electricity
(d) not liable as negligence on its part is nor proved
Ans: (b)
Q. 34.In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court laid down that where the enterprise is engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities and harm results to any one on account of accident, the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by such accident ?
(a) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India
(d) Pondyal v. Union of India
Ans. (b)
Q. 35. Consider the following statements:
In case of joint publication of defamatory statement:
1. a corporation is liable for the malice of its agent.
2. the proprietor of a newspaper is liable for the malice of the editor.
3. a lawyer is liable for the malice in the notice issued under the instructions of his client.
4. the employer is liable for the malice of h typist who types a defamatory letter as dictated by his employer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Q. 36. Two dogs, belonging to two different persons, acting in concert attacked a flock of sheep and injured them.
Which one of the following is the correct statement? In an action for damages
(a) one of them is liable for one-half of the damage caused by his dog
(b) each of them is liable for lull damage caused by their dogs
(c) none of them is liable for full damage caused by their dogs
(d) each of them is liable proportional damage caused by. their dogs
Ans. (b)
Q. 37. Which of the following situations relate to joint liability?
1. When one person employs another to do an act which turns out to be a tort.
2. Master engages a servant ‘to do an act which amounts to tort.
3. Two or mote persons combine together to do an act amounting to tort.
4. Two or more persons do wrongful act resulting in one damage.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1 and 2, only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q. 38. What does tort of negligence mean?
(a) Doing an act by failing to take reasonable care which a prudent man would take in similar circumstances
(b) Doing an act with intention to cause harm to others
(c) Doing an act without displaying mental alertness
(d) Doing an act with forgetfulness
Ans: (a)
Q. 39. Due to negligence of railway authorities, there was a major train accident. On hearing and seeing the news of the accident on TV mother of one of the passengers traveling in the train sustained severe shock resulting in heart attack. She claimed damages from the railways for the shock she sustained.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Railway authority is not liable as
(a) she was not directly involved in the accident
(b) she was not traveling in the train
(c) she cannot prove negligence of the railway authorities
(d) there exist no direct relation in term of time and space between the accident and the shock she sustained
Ans. (d)
Q.40. Consider the following statements:
For defamation the plaintiff has to prove that the imputation is false and malicious. In this context malicious means
1. with evil motive.
2. without just cause and excuse.
3. a factor relevant in assessment of damages.
4. an irrelevant plea of defamation.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 2only
(d) 2,3and4
Ans: (a)
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