Q. 1. Which one of the following propositions is not correct?
(a) Physical control is the essence of ownership
(b) Animus and corpus are necessary to constitute possession
(c) Only when both animus and corpus are lost, possession is lost—so said Paul
(d) Possession, is the prima-facie evidence of ownership
Ans. (a)
Q. 2. In which one of the following cases, is the President of India not bound by the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers?
(a) In deciding the question of removal of a Governor
(b) In deciding the question whether a member of Lok Sabha has become disqualified to continue as a member
(c) While exercising power to grant pardon
(d) In dismissing a civil servant without any enquiry and hearing on the ground of security of state
Ans. (b)
Q.3. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to any dispute between
(a) the Government of India and one or more States
(b) two or more States
(c) the Government of India and any State of States on one side and one or more other States on the other
(d) a State and a State corporation
Ans: (d)
Q.4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A Private clause means
(a) statutory provisions which purport to oust the inherent jurisdiction of the superior court to review the legality of actions taken by statutory delegates.
(b) Henry VIII clause
(c) a provision conferring power of judicial review on quasi-judicial tribunal
(d) a provision depriving a private party from filing a write petition
Ans. (b)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is the correct statement? After exhausting all available remedies before the Supreme Court, a “Curative” Petition is maintainable as held in:
(a) Ashok Hurra case
(b) A.R. Antulay case
(c) Best Bakery case
(d) Fodder Scam case
Ans. (a)
Q.6. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The writ of certiorari can not be issued to quash
(a) an order suffering from failure to exercise jurisdiction
(b) an order based on insufficient evidence
(c) a non-speaking order passed by a quasijudicial body
(d) an order suffering from non-compliance with the prescribed procedure
Ans: (c)
Q. 7. In which one of the following case; did the Supreme Court rule that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts in respect of the decisions given by the Service Tribunals, cannot be ousted or excluded even by a Constitutional Amendment?
(a) High Court of Judicature at Bombay v. Shirish Kumar
(b) Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
(c) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(d) All India Judges Association v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
Q. 8. Which one of the following is not within the purview of the functions of Public Service Commissions?
(a) Consultation relating to recruitment to civil services
(b) Consultation in relation to promotions and transfers from one service to the other
(c) Consultation in relation to reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward classes of citizens
(d) Consultation in relation to disciplinary matters affecting civil servants
Ans. (c)
Q. 9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) No law made by a State legislature shall be treated as unconstitutional if it incidentally touches upon the jurisdiction provides for under List I or List III.
(b) The legislature of a State cannot make a law to regulate “Water”.
(c) The law, made by Parliament under Article 357 for a State continues its application after the expiry of President’s rule.
(d) Parliament has full power to make law on residuary matter.
Ans. (b)
Q. 10. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The theory of repugnancy has application in a case where
(a) both Union and State occupy two different fields in different Lists
(b) both Union and State laws are enacted under the Concurrent List
(c) the Union law is enacted under List II and State law is enacted under List II
(d) the Union and State laws enacted under the State List
Ans. (b)
Q. 11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period
(a) not exceeding six months
(b) not exceeding two years
(c) not exceeding one year
(d) of unlimited time
Ans. (c)
Q. 12. If any directions are issued by Union Government to a State and they have not been .complied with, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It shall be presumed that the constitutional. machinery in the State failed as per Article 365 of the Constitution
(b) It shall be presumed that the State had law and order problem and action under Article 365 is required
(c) The Union Government can appoint advisers to help the Governor for performing his functions
(d) The Parliamentary may make law for that State
Ans. (a)
Q. 13.
Which one of the following is the correct statement? “Full faith and Credit” clause of the Constitution does not apply to:
(a) public records
(b) judicial proceedings
(c) acts of corporations
(d) public acts
Ans. (c)
Q. 14. Which one of the following is the correct statement? In Special Reference No. 1 of 2002, it was held that:
(a) a person convicted for an offence and punished with imprisonment of two years or more was disqualified to be appointed as Chief Minister of a State
(b) the imposition of President’s rule was not mandatory even if there was a gap of more than six months between two sessions of the Legislative Assembly if the Legislative Assembly had been dissolved
(c) the advice of Chief Justice of India regarding the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court shall be binding on the President
(d) the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is. binding on all courts and authorities
Ans. (b)
Q. 15. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The power of Indian Parliament to amend the
Constitution of India as a constitutional power was
laid down under Article 368 by
(a) the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
(b) the Constitution (Twenty fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
(c) the Constitution (Twenty sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
(d) the Constitution (Forty second Amendment) Act, 1976
Ans. (b)
Q. 16. Consider the following statements relating to the President of India
1. He may resign by writing to the Vice-President.
2. He shall continue, not withstanding the expiration of his term, to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
3. He is not entitled to hold the office for more than two terms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3, only
(b) 1 and 2, only
(c) l, 2and3.
(d) 2and3, only
Ans. (b)
Q.17.Consider the following statements
l. The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment.
2. The Governor cannot commute death sentence to life imprisonment.
3. The President’s power to pardon extends to punishments or sentences b9 court martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3, only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) .2 and 3, only
Ans. (b)
Q. 18. Assertion (A) It shall be the duty of the Union and the State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments.
Reason (R): The functions of Public Service Commissions are only advisory and not obligatory upon the government to act upon.
Ans. (a)
Q. 19. Consider the following statements
Article 286 of the Constitution of India provides that no law of a State shall impose, or authorize the imposition of a tax on the sale or purchase of goods where such sale or purchase
1. takes place even within the territory of the State.
2. takes’ place in the course of the import of the goods into, or export of the goods out of, the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans. (b)
Q. 20. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) The Supreme Court can over-rule itself
(b) A High Court can over-rule itself
(c) Obiter dicta of the Supreme Court also binds the lower courts
(d) Judgments of a High Court do not bind the lower courts of the State
Ans. (d)
Q. 21. In which one of the following cases Supreme Court had held that “States” do not enjoy sovereignty under the Indian Constitution as it does not provide for a federal character in the strict sense?
(a) in re Berubari Union
(b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India
(c) State of Bombay v. R.M.D. Chamarbagwala
(d) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
Ans. (b)
Q. 22. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares the resolve of the people of India to secure to all its citizens.
(a) freedom of residence anywhere in the country
(b) right to establish and administer educational institutions of choice
(c) liberty of belief, faith and worship
Ans. (c)
Q. 23. Match List-I with List-IT and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Liberty of thought 1. Right to freedom and expression
B. Freedom of speech 2. and expression
C.Making special provision
for women and children 3. Preamble provision for women
and children
D. Protection of interest 4.Life and liberty of minorities
5. Right to equality
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 5 2
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans. (a)
Q. 24. Match List-I (Judicial. Principle) with List-II (Decision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Judicial Principle) (Decision)
A. Preamble 1. State of Orissa v. Miss Binapani Dei
B. Natural Justice 2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Right to Life 3. Mohini v. State of Karnataka
D. Right to Education 4. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar
5. Bhim Singh v. State of J & K
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 5 1
Ans. (c)
Q. 25. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in:
(a) the Right to Freedom
(b) the Right to Personal Liberty
(c) the Right to Equality
(d) the Right against Exploitation
Ans. (b)
Q. 26. Which one of the following is not expressly covered as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to form association
(b) Right to equality before law
(c) Right to freedom of press
(d) Right to assemble peaceable and without arms
Ans. (c)
Q.27. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Double Jeopardy means
(a) trying two persons jointly for the same offence
(b) trying the same person for So offences at two different times
(c) putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence.
(d) trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident
Ans. (c)
Q. 28. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that air waves and frequencies were public property and their use must be regulated by a public authority?
(a) Air India v. Nergesh Mirza
(b) Secretary, Ministry of I & B v. Cricket Association of Bengal
(c) Peoples’ Union Of Civil Liberties v. Union of India
(d) Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms
Ans: (b)
Q. 29. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The writ of Mandamus can be issued
(a) against the legislature for making law
(b) for performance of a public duty
(c) for exercise of discretionary powers
(d) for deciding legality of an arrest
Ans. (b)
Q. 30. ‘A’ took an electric tandoor from B & Co. on rent. In the rent agreement there was a clause to the effect that the company shall not be liable for any personal injury to the hirer or to any other person while using it. However, due to defect in the tandoor, A’s wife was injured. She brought an action against B & Co.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) She cannot succeed but ‘A’ can claim damages from B & Co.
(b) She cannot succeed as there was no contract between her and the Co.
(c) She would succeed
(d) She cannot succeed due to exemption clause
Ans. (c)
Q. 31 Match List-I (Maxim) with List-II (Case) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II
(Maxim) (Case)
A. Injuria sine damno 1. Gloucester Grammar School Case
B. Damnuin sine injuria 2. Bird v. Holbrook
C. Res ipsa loquitur 3. Ashby v. White
D. Volenti non fil injuria 4. Byrne v. Boadle
5. Davies v. Mann
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 5 2
Ans: (b)
Q. 32. Consider the following statements For making occupier or owner of a land liable on the basis of strict liability rule certain essential factors are
1. Keeping of a dangerous thing on his land.
2. non-natural use of land.
3. use of thing for common benefit.
4. escape of thing from his control.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4, only
Ans. (c)
Q. 33. On a rainy and windy day a live wire snapped from an electric pole. Mohan did not notice the wire and rode his bicycle over the wire. He got electrocuted and died. His widow brought an action for damages against the Electricity Board.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The Board is
(a) not liable as wire snapped due to act of God
(b) liable and basis of liability is the foreseeable risk inherent in the very nature of such activity
(c) not liable as it has statutory duty to supply electricity
(d) not liable as negligence on its part is nor proved
Ans: (b)
Q. 34.In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court laid down that where the enterprise is engaged in hazardous or inherently dangerous activities and harm results to any one on account of accident, the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by such accident ?
(a) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India
(d) Pondyal v. Union of India
Ans. (b)
Q. 35. Consider the following statements:
In case of joint publication of defamatory statement:
1. a corporation is liable for the malice of its agent.
2. the proprietor of a newspaper is liable for the malice of the editor.
3. a lawyer is liable for the malice in the notice issued under the instructions of his client.
4. the employer is liable for the malice of h typist who types a defamatory letter as dictated by his employer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Q. 36. Two dogs, belonging to two different persons, acting in concert attacked a flock of sheep and injured them.
Which one of the following is the correct statement? In an action for damages
(a) one of them is liable for one-half of the damage caused by his dog
(b) each of them is liable for lull damage caused by their dogs
(c) none of them is liable for full damage caused by their dogs
(d) each of them is liable proportional damage caused by. their dogs
Ans. (b)
Q. 37. Which of the following situations relate to joint liability?
1. When one person employs another to do an act which turns out to be a tort.
2. Master engages a servant ‘to do an act which amounts to tort.
3. Two or mote persons combine together to do an act amounting to tort.
4. Two or more persons do wrongful act resulting in one damage.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1 and 2, only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q. 38. What does tort of negligence mean?
(a) Doing an act by failing to take reasonable care which a prudent man would take in similar circumstances
(b) Doing an act with intention to cause harm to others
(c) Doing an act without displaying mental alertness
(d) Doing an act with forgetfulness
Ans: (a)
Q. 39. Due to negligence of railway authorities, there was a major train accident. On hearing and seeing the news of the accident on TV mother of one of the passengers traveling in the train sustained severe shock resulting in heart attack. She claimed damages from the railways for the shock she sustained.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Railway authority is not liable as
(a) she was not directly involved in the accident
(b) she was not traveling in the train
(c) she cannot prove negligence of the railway authorities
(d) there exist no direct relation in term of time and space between the accident and the shock she sustained
Ans. (d)
Q.40. Consider the following statements:
For defamation the plaintiff has to prove that the imputation is false and malicious. In this context malicious means
1. with evil motive.
2. without just cause and excuse.
3. a factor relevant in assessment of damages.
4. an irrelevant plea of defamation.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 2only
(d) 2,3and4
Ans: (a)
Wednesday, October 20, 2010
LAW QUESTIONS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Preamble of the Constitution of India can be amended by the Parliament up to any extend barring the basic features.
2. The Preamble can be amended only by special majority and ratification by legislatures of 1 (half) the States.
2
3. The Preamble has no role to play in the interpretation of any provision of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans : (b)
2. Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India comprises of which of the following?
1. Individual rights
2. Group rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Subject matter) List-II (Case)
A. Reservation in unaided 1. E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh
private colleges
B. 27% reservation for OBCs 2. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
in government services
C. Constitutional validity of laws 3. R.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra
included in the Ninth Schedule
4.Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Code :
A B C
(a) 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4
(c) 2 3 4
(d) 4 1 3
Ans : (a)
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Power of President) (Relevant Constitutional Provision)
A. Power to grant pardon- 1.Article 76
B .Executive power of the Union 2.Article 7
C. Power to appoint Prime Minister 3.Article 53
D. Appointment of Attorney General. 4.Article 72
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (b)
5. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In a cabinet form of government neither the President nor the Government exercises the executive functions individually or personally
(b) Executive action taken in the name of the Governor is the executive action of the State
(c) The Governor cannot be held personally answerable for any portion of the address to the joint session
(d) The Governor is bound to exercise all his powers and the functions on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)
6. Which one of the following is correct with regard to the decision in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar case?
(a) President is entitled to promulgate ordinance during the recess of the Parliament
(b) Colorable re-promulgation of ordinance is unconstitutional
(c) Article 123 empowers the President to issue successive ordinances
(d) Governor’s power of re-issuance of ordinance cannot be questioned in the Court of Law
Ans: (b)
7. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to transfer of cases from the High Courts?
(a) Cases involving same or substantially same question of law should be pending before Supreme Court and one or more High Courts
(b) Application requesting for transfer should be filled by Attorney General or any party to the case
(c) Transfer is possible when the Supreme Court on its own is satisfied that such question is of general importance
(d) Transfer of cases from one High• Court to another is not permissible in any circumstance
Ans d)
8. Consider the following statements:
Judicial review under the Constitution of India
1. is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
2; can only be ousted or excluded by a constitutional amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
9. Which of the following is not a function of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions?
1. Advising the appropriate governments on matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
2. Consultation in creation of All India Services.
3. Consultation on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India or of a person serving the Government of a State in a civil capacity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c )2 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Doctrine) (Related judgment)
A. Doctrine of Repugnancy 1. State of Bombay v. F.N.Balsara
B. Doctrine of Colorable Legislation 2. Prafulla Kumar v. Bank of Commerce
C. Doctrine of Pith and Substance 3. K.C.G Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa
D. Doctrine of Harmonious Construction 4. M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (b)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Emergency is always imposed throughout the nation.
2. Emergency can be imposed not only on the grounds of actual war, external aggression or armed rebellion, but also in anticipation thereof.
3. Every proclamation of Emergency will not remain in force after one month unless it is approved by both the Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
12. Assertion (A) Contributory negligence in an accident is a defense to a charge in criminal law.
Reason (R) : The fact that the deceased was also negligent and contributed to the accident does not afford a defense to the driver.
Code:
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R is individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
13. Even if the harm to the plaintiff has been caused maliciously no action can lie for the same unless the plaintiff can prove that he has suffered legal injuries. In which one of the following cases was this principle enunciated?
(a) Bradford Corporation v. Pickles
(b) Christie v. Davey
(c) Re Polemis case
(d) Holderness v. Goslin
Ans: (a)
14. Match List-I with List-l and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense) (Decision)
A. Inevitable accident 1. Richards v. Lothian
B. Act of God 2. Alexander v. North Eastern Railway
C. Justification by truth 3. Nichols v. Mars
D. Act of third party 4. Stanley v. Powell
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (a)
15. X, the owner of a car, asked his friend Y to drive the car to his office. As the car was near his (X’s) office, it hit a pedestrian P on account of Y’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. P sued X for damages. Which one of the following is correct regarding the above?
(a) X is not liable as it was the negligence of Y
(b) The liability was solely of Y as X was not accompanying him
(c) As Y was driving under X’s care and authority, X is liable
(d) X is not liable under the principle of inevitable accident
Ans: (c)
16. The standard of care generally used in cases of negligence is the
(a) skill and care of a professional person
(b) care taken by an intelligent and prudent man
(c) foresight of a prudent man
(d) skill and foresight of an ordinary person of prudence and competence
Ans: (d)
17. Two persons are said to be joint tort-feasors when
(a) a person on account of his negligence gives opportunity to another for committing a tort
(b) two or more persons are. simultaneously involved in committing a wrong
(c) a tort is committed by two or more persons or any one of them when they are engaged in furtherance of a concerted purpose
(d) two persons together commit a tort
Ans: (c)
18. In which one of the following cases has the test of directness for determining the remoteness of damage been applied?
(a) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(b) Re Polemis
(c) Wagon Mound No. 1
(d) Doughty v. Tumer Manufacturing Co.Ltd
Ans:(b)
19. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Judicial Principle) (Decision)
A. Injuria Sine Damno 1. Jones v. Boyce
B. Damnum Sine Injuria 2. Davies v. Mann
C. Rule of Last Opportunity 3. Ashby v. White
D. Doctrine of Alternative Danger 4. Gloucester Grammar School Case
Code:
ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (c)
20. The principle of absolute liability in the Indian tort law is applicable when damage is caused by the activity or escape of
(a) hazardous material only
(b) poisonous material
(c) inherently dangerous material only
(d) hazardous or inherently dangerous material
Ans : (d)
21. Consider the following decided cases on the tort of foreseeability:
1. Wagon Mound No. 1
2. Wagon Mound No.2
3. Hughes v. Lord Advocate
4. Doughty v Turner Manufacturing Co. Ltd.
Select the correct chronological order of the above cases, in
which they were decided, using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 1-3-4-2
(d) 3-1-2-4
Ans:(a)
22. Match List-I with List-I and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Special Defense) (Decision)
A. Reasonable restriction 1.Cook v. Alexander
B. Contributory negligence 2.Rajinder Kishore v. Durga Sahi
C. Absolute privilege 3 Herd v. Weardale Steel, Coal and Coke. Co. Ltd.
D. Qualified privilege 4.Rural Transport Service v. Bezlum Bibi
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (?)
23. Which one of the following is the gist of the cause of action for tort of conspiracy?
(a) An agreement between defendants to do an unlawful act
(b) An agreement and overt act by the defendants
(c) An agreement and oven act causing damage to the plaintiff
(d) Unlawful combination causing or not causing damage to the plaintiff
Ans:(c)
24. Which among the following are relevant for liability in the tort of conspiracy?
1. Number of combiners
2. Purpose of the combiners
3. Intention of the combiners
4. Actions taken by the combiners
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
25. Match List-I with List and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Nature of tort) (Ingredient)
A. Private nuisance 1.Interest in land
B. Public nuisance 2.Addressed to the eye
C. Libel 3.No interest in land
D. Slander 4.Addressed to the ear
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (b)
26. For an action of nuisance, the following have been put up as defenses:
1. The place is suitable for the purpose.
2. It is for the benefit of the locality.
3. It is done under statutory authority?
Which of the defenses given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2and3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2and3
(d) 3only
Ans: (d)
27. Which one of the following elements is not necessary to have a private right of action in respect of a public nuisance?
(a) The plaintiff must show a particular injury to himself beyond that which is suffered by the rest of the public
(b) The injury must be of a substantial character
(c) The nuisance must be caused by negligence
(d) The injury must be direct and not consequential injury
Ans: (c)
28. Which of the following remedies are available in an action in the tort of nuisance?
1. Abatement
2. Injunction
3. Specific restitution
4. Action for damages
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
29. Consider the following statements:
The Actus reus is made up of
1. human action which is usually termed ‘conduct’.
2. the result of such act in the specified circumstances which is designated as ‘injury’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
30. Which of the following is the correct theoretical sequence in the commission of an offence?
1. Physical element
2. Mental element
3. Forbidden consequence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Ans: (b)
3. A is dead drunk and yet decides to go for a joy ride along with his friends. He drives his newly imported car with high speed and not able to control his vehicle when he passes through a busy shopping market causing instant death of three pedestrians. He is found to be highly intoxicated state at the time of the accident and the speed of car is found to be above 70 kms. For which one of the following offences can he be prosecuted?
(a) Homicide caused by rash and negligent act
(b) Murder
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) Causing grievous hurt by an act endangering life
Ans: (c)
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Elements of offence) (Type of offence)
A. Movable property obtained without consent 1. Robbery
B. Movable property obtained without consent by instant violence 2. Extortion
C. Movable property obtained without consent induced by fear 3.Dacoity
D. Movable property obtained using instant violence 4. Theft
by a gang of six persons
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (c)
33. Consider the following:
1. Entrustment.
2: Misappropriation or conversion to one’s own use.
3. Misappropriation, conversion or disposal with dishonest intention.
In which one of the following offences are the above essential ingredients?
(a) Cheating
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Extortion
Ans: (b)
34. ‘A’, a revenue officer, having dominion over public money by virtue of his office and is either directed by law, or bound by a contract, express or implied, with the government, to pay into a certain treasury all the public money which he holds. ‘A’ dishonestly appropriates the money. Which one of the following offences has ‘A’ committed under IPC?
(a) Theft, section 378 IPC
(b) Criminal breach of trust, section 405 IPC
(c) Misappropriation of property, section 403 IPC
(d) Robbery, section 390 IPC
Ans: (b)
35. In cases of criminal misappropriation, the initial possession of the property is:
(a) dishonest
(b) fraudulent
(c) innocent
(d) illegal
Ans: (c)
36. Taking property dishonestly from the dead body
(a) does not amount to any offence under IPC
(b) amounts to the offence of theft
(c) amounts to the offence of criminal misappropriation
(d) amounts to the offence of criminal breach of trust
Ans: (c)
37. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfilling the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of the assembly liable.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are. individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
38. Locus poenitentiae test is applied to trace which one of the following?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Attempt
(c) Sedition
(d) Conspiracy
Ans: (d)
39. To whom, among the following, is the right of private defense, under chapter IV of IPC, available?
1. Only to the defender being a preventive right.
2. An aggressor, while facing action on the part of the defender which is excessive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
40. P with the intention of committing theft entered the house of Q. Q, on seeing him entering, struck him with a lathi and P fell down unconscious. Thereafter, Q gave him another blow of lathi at his head which caused his death. On being prosecuted for murder, Q took the plea of private defense.
Which of the following argument is valid?
(a) Since Q was acting in the exercise of right of private defense of his property, he had taken a valid defense
(b) Since in the defense of one’s property one cannot cause death of the intruder, Q has no defense
(c) Q has used excessive force as once P fell unconscious; there was no need for the second blow. Hence, Q’s plea of right of private defense will not succeed
(d) If P committed house breaking in the night, Q has the right to cause death in the de of his property, and thus Q’s plea should prevail
Ans: (c)
41. Which one of the following is the correct group of offences against which right of private defense relating to property can be exercised?
(a) Theft, Extortion, Robbery, Mischief
(b) Theft, Extortion, Mischief, Criminal Trespass
(c) Robbery, Mischief, Criminal Trespass, Extortion
(d) Theft, Robbery. Mischief, Criminal Trespass
Ans (d)
42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
For the purpose of section 103 of IPC (causing death in the exercise of right of private defense for protection of property), there is:
(a) no distinction between public property and private property
(b) clear distinction between public property and private property
(c) no right of private defense
(d) no right of private defense at the attempt stage of causing of death
Ans: (a)
43. A instigates B to kill C by means of a letter sent through post. The abetment by instigation is complete
(a) as soon as the letter reaches the addressee
(b) as soon as the abettor posts the letter to the addressee
(c) as soon as the contents of the letter are known to the addressee
(d) even if the letter was sent at a wrong address
Ans: (c)
44. B, a man of unsound mind, sets fire to a dwelling house on A’s instigation. Here, B is exempted from criminal liability (Section 84 IPC), but A is guilty of abetting mischief by fire with intent to destroy the house. The principle for this criminal liability may be explained by which one of the following explanations?
(a) The abetment of an offence being an offence, the abetment of such an abetment is also an offence.
(b) The person who has been instigated to commit an offence may not be liable under criminal law for his act because of his being of unsound mind at the time of committing the offence but the abetment to commit mischief by fire.
(c) To constitute offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
(d) It is not necessary to the commission of the offence by conspiracy that the abettor should work in concert with the person who commits it
Ans: (b)
45. X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the poison and delivers it to V in order that he may administer it to Z. Yin pursuance of the conspiracy administers the poison in the presence of X and hereby causes Z’s death. What offence, if any has been committed by X and Y, respectively?
(a) Y has committed the offence of murder and X was an abettor
(b) Both X and Y have committed the offence of criminal conspiracy
(c) X has committed the offence of murder and Y was an abettor
(d) Both X and Y have committed the offence of murder
Ans: (d)
46. Which of the following is/are correct?
For an offence of extortion
1. it is necessary that the threat made and the property received be by one and the same person.
2. it is not necessary that the person who received threat and the person who delivered the property be one and the same person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
47. Stealing one’s own property is:
(a) not at all an offence
(b) an offence under section 403 of IPC
(c) an offence tinder section 405 of IPC
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
48. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court explain the concept of grave and sudden provocation as a mitigating circumstance reducing the gravity of the offence from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder?
(a) State v. Dasrath
(b) Jagroop Singh v. State of Haryana
(c) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
(d) Ujagar Singh v. Emperor
Ans: (c)
49. The juristic concept of contract consists of
(a) free consent and capacity
(b) offer and acceptance
(c) consideration and undue influence
(d) agreement and obligation
Ans: (d)
50. Consider the following statements:
1 An Agreement made without consideration is void.
2. Consideration should have some value in the eyes of the law.
3. Consideration has to be adequate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
1. The Preamble of the Constitution of India can be amended by the Parliament up to any extend barring the basic features.
2. The Preamble can be amended only by special majority and ratification by legislatures of 1 (half) the States.
2
3. The Preamble has no role to play in the interpretation of any provision of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans : (b)
2. Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India comprises of which of the following?
1. Individual rights
2. Group rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Subject matter) List-II (Case)
A. Reservation in unaided 1. E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh
private colleges
B. 27% reservation for OBCs 2. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
in government services
C. Constitutional validity of laws 3. R.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra
included in the Ninth Schedule
4.Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Code :
A B C
(a) 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4
(c) 2 3 4
(d) 4 1 3
Ans : (a)
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Power of President) (Relevant Constitutional Provision)
A. Power to grant pardon- 1.Article 76
B .Executive power of the Union 2.Article 7
C. Power to appoint Prime Minister 3.Article 53
D. Appointment of Attorney General. 4.Article 72
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (b)
5. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In a cabinet form of government neither the President nor the Government exercises the executive functions individually or personally
(b) Executive action taken in the name of the Governor is the executive action of the State
(c) The Governor cannot be held personally answerable for any portion of the address to the joint session
(d) The Governor is bound to exercise all his powers and the functions on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)
6. Which one of the following is correct with regard to the decision in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar case?
(a) President is entitled to promulgate ordinance during the recess of the Parliament
(b) Colorable re-promulgation of ordinance is unconstitutional
(c) Article 123 empowers the President to issue successive ordinances
(d) Governor’s power of re-issuance of ordinance cannot be questioned in the Court of Law
Ans: (b)
7. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to transfer of cases from the High Courts?
(a) Cases involving same or substantially same question of law should be pending before Supreme Court and one or more High Courts
(b) Application requesting for transfer should be filled by Attorney General or any party to the case
(c) Transfer is possible when the Supreme Court on its own is satisfied that such question is of general importance
(d) Transfer of cases from one High• Court to another is not permissible in any circumstance
Ans d)
8. Consider the following statements:
Judicial review under the Constitution of India
1. is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
2; can only be ousted or excluded by a constitutional amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
9. Which of the following is not a function of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions?
1. Advising the appropriate governments on matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
2. Consultation in creation of All India Services.
3. Consultation on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India or of a person serving the Government of a State in a civil capacity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c )2 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Doctrine) (Related judgment)
A. Doctrine of Repugnancy 1. State of Bombay v. F.N.Balsara
B. Doctrine of Colorable Legislation 2. Prafulla Kumar v. Bank of Commerce
C. Doctrine of Pith and Substance 3. K.C.G Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa
D. Doctrine of Harmonious Construction 4. M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (b)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Emergency is always imposed throughout the nation.
2. Emergency can be imposed not only on the grounds of actual war, external aggression or armed rebellion, but also in anticipation thereof.
3. Every proclamation of Emergency will not remain in force after one month unless it is approved by both the Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
12. Assertion (A) Contributory negligence in an accident is a defense to a charge in criminal law.
Reason (R) : The fact that the deceased was also negligent and contributed to the accident does not afford a defense to the driver.
Code:
(a) Both A and R is individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R is individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
13. Even if the harm to the plaintiff has been caused maliciously no action can lie for the same unless the plaintiff can prove that he has suffered legal injuries. In which one of the following cases was this principle enunciated?
(a) Bradford Corporation v. Pickles
(b) Christie v. Davey
(c) Re Polemis case
(d) Holderness v. Goslin
Ans: (a)
14. Match List-I with List-l and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Defense) (Decision)
A. Inevitable accident 1. Richards v. Lothian
B. Act of God 2. Alexander v. North Eastern Railway
C. Justification by truth 3. Nichols v. Mars
D. Act of third party 4. Stanley v. Powell
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (a)
15. X, the owner of a car, asked his friend Y to drive the car to his office. As the car was near his (X’s) office, it hit a pedestrian P on account of Y’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. P sued X for damages. Which one of the following is correct regarding the above?
(a) X is not liable as it was the negligence of Y
(b) The liability was solely of Y as X was not accompanying him
(c) As Y was driving under X’s care and authority, X is liable
(d) X is not liable under the principle of inevitable accident
Ans: (c)
16. The standard of care generally used in cases of negligence is the
(a) skill and care of a professional person
(b) care taken by an intelligent and prudent man
(c) foresight of a prudent man
(d) skill and foresight of an ordinary person of prudence and competence
Ans: (d)
17. Two persons are said to be joint tort-feasors when
(a) a person on account of his negligence gives opportunity to another for committing a tort
(b) two or more persons are. simultaneously involved in committing a wrong
(c) a tort is committed by two or more persons or any one of them when they are engaged in furtherance of a concerted purpose
(d) two persons together commit a tort
Ans: (c)
18. In which one of the following cases has the test of directness for determining the remoteness of damage been applied?
(a) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(b) Re Polemis
(c) Wagon Mound No. 1
(d) Doughty v. Tumer Manufacturing Co.Ltd
Ans:(b)
19. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Judicial Principle) (Decision)
A. Injuria Sine Damno 1. Jones v. Boyce
B. Damnum Sine Injuria 2. Davies v. Mann
C. Rule of Last Opportunity 3. Ashby v. White
D. Doctrine of Alternative Danger 4. Gloucester Grammar School Case
Code:
ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (c)
20. The principle of absolute liability in the Indian tort law is applicable when damage is caused by the activity or escape of
(a) hazardous material only
(b) poisonous material
(c) inherently dangerous material only
(d) hazardous or inherently dangerous material
Ans : (d)
21. Consider the following decided cases on the tort of foreseeability:
1. Wagon Mound No. 1
2. Wagon Mound No.2
3. Hughes v. Lord Advocate
4. Doughty v Turner Manufacturing Co. Ltd.
Select the correct chronological order of the above cases, in
which they were decided, using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 1-3-4-2
(d) 3-1-2-4
Ans:(a)
22. Match List-I with List-I and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Special Defense) (Decision)
A. Reasonable restriction 1.Cook v. Alexander
B. Contributory negligence 2.Rajinder Kishore v. Durga Sahi
C. Absolute privilege 3 Herd v. Weardale Steel, Coal and Coke. Co. Ltd.
D. Qualified privilege 4.Rural Transport Service v. Bezlum Bibi
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (?)
23. Which one of the following is the gist of the cause of action for tort of conspiracy?
(a) An agreement between defendants to do an unlawful act
(b) An agreement and overt act by the defendants
(c) An agreement and oven act causing damage to the plaintiff
(d) Unlawful combination causing or not causing damage to the plaintiff
Ans:(c)
24. Which among the following are relevant for liability in the tort of conspiracy?
1. Number of combiners
2. Purpose of the combiners
3. Intention of the combiners
4. Actions taken by the combiners
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
25. Match List-I with List and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Nature of tort) (Ingredient)
A. Private nuisance 1.Interest in land
B. Public nuisance 2.Addressed to the eye
C. Libel 3.No interest in land
D. Slander 4.Addressed to the ear
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (b)
26. For an action of nuisance, the following have been put up as defenses:
1. The place is suitable for the purpose.
2. It is for the benefit of the locality.
3. It is done under statutory authority?
Which of the defenses given above is/are correct?
(a) 1,2and3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2and3
(d) 3only
Ans: (d)
27. Which one of the following elements is not necessary to have a private right of action in respect of a public nuisance?
(a) The plaintiff must show a particular injury to himself beyond that which is suffered by the rest of the public
(b) The injury must be of a substantial character
(c) The nuisance must be caused by negligence
(d) The injury must be direct and not consequential injury
Ans: (c)
28. Which of the following remedies are available in an action in the tort of nuisance?
1. Abatement
2. Injunction
3. Specific restitution
4. Action for damages
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
29. Consider the following statements:
The Actus reus is made up of
1. human action which is usually termed ‘conduct’.
2. the result of such act in the specified circumstances which is designated as ‘injury’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
30. Which of the following is the correct theoretical sequence in the commission of an offence?
1. Physical element
2. Mental element
3. Forbidden consequence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
Ans: (b)
3. A is dead drunk and yet decides to go for a joy ride along with his friends. He drives his newly imported car with high speed and not able to control his vehicle when he passes through a busy shopping market causing instant death of three pedestrians. He is found to be highly intoxicated state at the time of the accident and the speed of car is found to be above 70 kms. For which one of the following offences can he be prosecuted?
(a) Homicide caused by rash and negligent act
(b) Murder
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(d) Causing grievous hurt by an act endangering life
Ans: (c)
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Elements of offence) (Type of offence)
A. Movable property obtained without consent 1. Robbery
B. Movable property obtained without consent by instant violence 2. Extortion
C. Movable property obtained without consent induced by fear 3.Dacoity
D. Movable property obtained using instant violence 4. Theft
by a gang of six persons
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (c)
33. Consider the following:
1. Entrustment.
2: Misappropriation or conversion to one’s own use.
3. Misappropriation, conversion or disposal with dishonest intention.
In which one of the following offences are the above essential ingredients?
(a) Cheating
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Extortion
Ans: (b)
34. ‘A’, a revenue officer, having dominion over public money by virtue of his office and is either directed by law, or bound by a contract, express or implied, with the government, to pay into a certain treasury all the public money which he holds. ‘A’ dishonestly appropriates the money. Which one of the following offences has ‘A’ committed under IPC?
(a) Theft, section 378 IPC
(b) Criminal breach of trust, section 405 IPC
(c) Misappropriation of property, section 403 IPC
(d) Robbery, section 390 IPC
Ans: (b)
35. In cases of criminal misappropriation, the initial possession of the property is:
(a) dishonest
(b) fraudulent
(c) innocent
(d) illegal
Ans: (c)
36. Taking property dishonestly from the dead body
(a) does not amount to any offence under IPC
(b) amounts to the offence of theft
(c) amounts to the offence of criminal misappropriation
(d) amounts to the offence of criminal breach of trust
Ans: (c)
37. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfilling the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of the assembly liable.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are. individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
38. Locus poenitentiae test is applied to trace which one of the following?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Attempt
(c) Sedition
(d) Conspiracy
Ans: (d)
39. To whom, among the following, is the right of private defense, under chapter IV of IPC, available?
1. Only to the defender being a preventive right.
2. An aggressor, while facing action on the part of the defender which is excessive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
40. P with the intention of committing theft entered the house of Q. Q, on seeing him entering, struck him with a lathi and P fell down unconscious. Thereafter, Q gave him another blow of lathi at his head which caused his death. On being prosecuted for murder, Q took the plea of private defense.
Which of the following argument is valid?
(a) Since Q was acting in the exercise of right of private defense of his property, he had taken a valid defense
(b) Since in the defense of one’s property one cannot cause death of the intruder, Q has no defense
(c) Q has used excessive force as once P fell unconscious; there was no need for the second blow. Hence, Q’s plea of right of private defense will not succeed
(d) If P committed house breaking in the night, Q has the right to cause death in the de of his property, and thus Q’s plea should prevail
Ans: (c)
41. Which one of the following is the correct group of offences against which right of private defense relating to property can be exercised?
(a) Theft, Extortion, Robbery, Mischief
(b) Theft, Extortion, Mischief, Criminal Trespass
(c) Robbery, Mischief, Criminal Trespass, Extortion
(d) Theft, Robbery. Mischief, Criminal Trespass
Ans (d)
42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
For the purpose of section 103 of IPC (causing death in the exercise of right of private defense for protection of property), there is:
(a) no distinction between public property and private property
(b) clear distinction between public property and private property
(c) no right of private defense
(d) no right of private defense at the attempt stage of causing of death
Ans: (a)
43. A instigates B to kill C by means of a letter sent through post. The abetment by instigation is complete
(a) as soon as the letter reaches the addressee
(b) as soon as the abettor posts the letter to the addressee
(c) as soon as the contents of the letter are known to the addressee
(d) even if the letter was sent at a wrong address
Ans: (c)
44. B, a man of unsound mind, sets fire to a dwelling house on A’s instigation. Here, B is exempted from criminal liability (Section 84 IPC), but A is guilty of abetting mischief by fire with intent to destroy the house. The principle for this criminal liability may be explained by which one of the following explanations?
(a) The abetment of an offence being an offence, the abetment of such an abetment is also an offence.
(b) The person who has been instigated to commit an offence may not be liable under criminal law for his act because of his being of unsound mind at the time of committing the offence but the abetment to commit mischief by fire.
(c) To constitute offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
(d) It is not necessary to the commission of the offence by conspiracy that the abettor should work in concert with the person who commits it
Ans: (b)
45. X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy procures the poison and delivers it to V in order that he may administer it to Z. Yin pursuance of the conspiracy administers the poison in the presence of X and hereby causes Z’s death. What offence, if any has been committed by X and Y, respectively?
(a) Y has committed the offence of murder and X was an abettor
(b) Both X and Y have committed the offence of criminal conspiracy
(c) X has committed the offence of murder and Y was an abettor
(d) Both X and Y have committed the offence of murder
Ans: (d)
46. Which of the following is/are correct?
For an offence of extortion
1. it is necessary that the threat made and the property received be by one and the same person.
2. it is not necessary that the person who received threat and the person who delivered the property be one and the same person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
47. Stealing one’s own property is:
(a) not at all an offence
(b) an offence under section 403 of IPC
(c) an offence tinder section 405 of IPC
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
48. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court explain the concept of grave and sudden provocation as a mitigating circumstance reducing the gravity of the offence from murder to culpable homicide not amounting to murder?
(a) State v. Dasrath
(b) Jagroop Singh v. State of Haryana
(c) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
(d) Ujagar Singh v. Emperor
Ans: (c)
49. The juristic concept of contract consists of
(a) free consent and capacity
(b) offer and acceptance
(c) consideration and undue influence
(d) agreement and obligation
Ans: (d)
50. Consider the following statements:
1 An Agreement made without consideration is void.
2. Consideration should have some value in the eyes of the law.
3. Consideration has to be adequate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
COMMERCE QUESTIONS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
1. Physical verification of fixed assets is the primary responsibility of the:
(a) auditor
(b) management
(c) government
(d) shareholders
Ans. (b)
2. Auditing Standards differ from auditing procedures in that the procedures relate to:
(a) measures of performance
(b) audit principles
(c) acts to be performed
(d) audit judgments
Ans. (c)
3. What is the correct sequence of the following assignments?
1. Internal control
2. Test check
3. Internal check
4. Statutory audit
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 3. 1, 2, 4
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans. (c)
4. Statutory auditor of a company in the case of a casual vacancy may be appointed by the:
(a) Board of Directors
(b) Managing Director
(c) Extraordinary General meeting
(d) Government concerned
Ans. (a)
5. Which of the following are included in the ‘Statutory Books’ for the purpose of company audit ?
1. Register of charges
2. Minutes Books for the Board meetings
3. Articles of Association
4. Minutes Book for the shareholder’s meeting
5. Register of members
6. Memorandum of Association
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 2, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (b)
6. Consider the following statements:
A statutory auditor of a public limited company claims that he has the following legal rights in relation to his duties:
1. Right to refuse to make a report
2. Right of access to books of accounts and registers
3. Right to seek explanation from directors and officers -
4. Right to make statement in the general meeting
Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3, and 4 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans. (d)
7 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Duties of auditors 1. Access to Books of company
B. Rights of auditors 2. Penalty for non-compliance with sections 227 to 229
C. Liabilities of auditors 3. Company in general meeting
D. Removal of auditors 4. To make a report.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (a)
8, Consider the following functions of a stock exchange:
1. Providing a ready market for securities
2. Helping capital formation
3. Regulating the capital structure of a company
4. Regulating the public deposits with companies
Of the above functions:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) none is correct
Ans. (c)
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Minimum issued capital for being 1. One crore
listed on a stock exchange
B. Exemption from the consent of controller 2. Three crores
of capital issues for issue of shares
C. Amount payable on shares to be called only 3. Issued capital of less than
in installments and not in one stroke Rs. 3 crores
D Listing in OTC exchange 4. Issued capital of Rs.50 crores
and above
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (a)
10. In stock exchange operations, when the speculator buys the right to sell a certain number of shares on an agreed amount at a specified time it is known as:
(a) no option
(b) put option
(c) cal option
(d) double option
Ans. (b)
11. The jurisdiction of the M.R.T.P. commission with respect to monopolistic trade practices is not exercisable opon/under:
(a) a reference made to it by the Central Government
(b) an application made to it by the Director General
(c) its own knowledge or information
(d) any of the abovementioned circumstances.
Ans. (c)
12. Complete consolidation as a class of business
combination may include:
(a) mergers and amalgamations
(b) pools and cartels
(c) trusts and holding companies
(d) trade associations and chambers of commerce
Ans. (a)
13. Modernization of industries can be achieved by:
(a) ensuring proper enforcement of the provisions of BIFR Act
(b) permitting PSUs to disinvest
(c) strictly implementing the provisions of industrial (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
(d) creating consciousness among the industrialists about the need for modernization
Ans. (d)
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The preamble to the Industrial Development and Regulation/Act, 1951 is to provide for the development and regulation of certain industries
(b) The Central Government has the power to add any new undertakings to the first schedule
(c) Regulation of industries specified in the first schedule to the Act is sought to be achieved by means of:
(i) regulation of existing industrial undertakings,
(ii) licensing of new industrial undertakings and
(iii) licensing for producing new articles
(d) The new industrial policy was announced by the government on July 24, 1991
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied in a claim for loss by fire?
1. There must be actual fire.
2. Fire must be accidental.
3. Cause of fire must be ascertainable.
4. The goods must have been destroyed, not damaged by fire.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
16. A mixed marine policy means:
(a) combination of fire and marine losses coverage
(b)combination of voyage and time policies
(c) combination of all types of risk on the sea
(d) combination of export credit insurance and marine insurance
Ans. (b)
17. A building worth five lakhs of rupees is insured for one lakh rupees. There is an average clause in the policy. A portion of the building valued one lakh of rupees is destroyed by fire. The owner can claim and recover:
(a) one lakh rupees
(b) twenty thousand rupees minus the sale of proceeds of the debris
(c) five lakh rupees
(d) one lakh rupees minus the sale of proceeds of the debris
Ans. (b)
18. Every person has insurable interest in his own life up to:
(a) a maximum of Rs. 5,00,000
(b) twenty times his net salary drawn
(c) an unlimited extent provided the premium payable does not exceed 20% of his sales salary
(d) an unlimited extent
Ans. (d)
19. Plate-Glass is typical type of accident insurance and it is mainly applicable to
(a) personal accident
(b) motor cars
(c) retail trade
(d) house burglary
Ans. (d)
20. ‘Doctrine of Subrogation’ is used in:
(a) Life Insurance
(b) Fire Insurance
(c) Marine Insurance; Fire Insurance
(d) Joint Life Insurance
Ans. (c)
21. Consider the following statements:
The Exim Bank plays an active role in boosting exports in:
1. civil construction contract abroad
2. providing long term finance for export of capital goods
3. providing short term finance for import of capita! goods
4. providing short term finance for export of quality goods
Of the above statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans. (d)
22. Which one of the following is not in vogue now?
(a) REP Licenses
(b) Advance Licenses
(c) Special import Licenses
(d) Custom permit
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following items are not considered to be export promotion measures?
1. Quota certificate
2. Cash compensatory assistance
3. System of exchange control
4. Marketing development fund
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (a)
24. ‘Bill of lading’ is issued by:
(a) Indian commercial banks
(b) Foreign banks
(c) shipping company
(d) exporters
Ans. (c)
25. Which one of the following defines Co-ordination?
(a) Actuating force which inspires a person to put his best for the fulfillment of a task
(b) Orderly arrangement of group effort to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose
(c) Process of transmitting information from one person to another or from one unit to another
(4) Process of determining what is to be accomplished and what has been accomplished and if necessary applying corrective measures
Ans. (b)
26. Consider the following basic steps involved in the process of control:
1. Identifying the strategic control points
2. Establishing the standards
3. Measuring performance against standards
4. Correcting deviations from the standards
The correct sequence of the above steps in the process of control is:
(a) 1,4,3,2
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans. (d)
27 Effective direction does not depend on the:
(a) communication process
(b) forces at the subordinate level
(c) ability of the manager
(d) deployment of human resources
Ans. (d)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I List -II
(Management Thinkers) (Contribution/work)
A. Elton Mayo 1. Importance of integrating the company’s and employees’ goal
B. Frederick W.Taylor 2. Social Problems of Industrial civilization
C. Henri Fayol 3 .General and industrial management
D. Mary Parker Follet 4. Principles of Scientific Management
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (c)
29, An organization structure is effective if it enables individuals to contribute to the objectives of the enterprise. This is known as.:
(a) scalar principle
(b) principle of functional definition
(c) principle of unity of objectives
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
30. Which one of the following orders indicates the correct logical order of managerial functions?
(a) Organizing, planning, directing, staffing, coordination and control
(b) Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, coordination and control
(c) Planning, directing, organizing, staffing, control and coordination
(d) Organizing, planning, staffing, directing, control and coordination
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following pairs is Not correctly matched?
(a) Value of any security : The real value of any security is determined by the prior rights to the return of income.
(b) Debenture : It possesses maximum safety and normally offers regular and fixed income.
(c) Preference share : It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and fixed income by way of dividend.
(d) Equity share: It invites speculative tendency among the investors. There is risk of loss in such a share.
Ans. (a)
32. Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate ‘Cross Relationship’ under span of control?
(a) n {n- 1}
(b) n {2n -1}/ n
(c) n {2n+n-1}/n
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
33. V.A. Graiounasi has identified three sets of superior subordinate relationship, which are Direct single relationship, Direct Group relationship and Cross relationship.
Now if there are two, three, four and five subordinates respectively under one superior then in this context which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Number of the subordinates Total number of relationship
(a) 2 8
(b) 3 18
(c) 4 48
(d) 5 98
Ans. (b)
34. The main difference between delegation and decentralization is that:
(a) delegation refers primarily to transfer of authority from one individual to another while decentralization refers to systematic delegation of authority to all units in an organization
(b) delegation of authority can take place without decentralization whereas there cannot be decentralization without delegation of authority
(c) delegation represents sharing of excessive burden of key managerial personnel while decentralization refers to division of top managerial operations
(d) delegation may take place due to administrative, technical and routine reasons while decentralization involves deliberate action for the smooth functioning of the organization.
Ans. (a)
35. Management by exception introduces:
(a) selective, responsibility oriented reporting
(b) reporting of significant variances
(c) requirements of full reports on performance
(d) computation of actuals in different spheres of performance
Ans. (b)
36. Consider the following office equipments used in various offices:
1. Fax
2. Typewriter
3. Dictaphone
4. Letter opener
The correct order in which they are used is;
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 2,4,3,1
(d) 3,2,4,1
Ans; (b)
37. Consider the following four steps of purchasing office supplies:
1. Obtain quotation from vendors
2. Fill out quotation forms indicating requirements
3. Send forms to prospective vendors
4. Catalogue respective quotations
The correct sequence of the above steps is:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4,3,1
(c) 3,2,1,4
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans. (d)
38. A public limited Company may in the general meeting, resolve to capitalize any part of the amount standing to the credit of any of its reserve accounts, upon the recommendation of the:
(a) Managing Director
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Financial Advisers
(d) shareholders
Ans. (b)
39. According to the Companies Act, 1956, a private company must have at least:
(a) seven directors
(b) three directors
(c) two directors
(d) one director
Ans. (c)
40. An enterprise incorporated by a Special Act of Parliament on the State Legislature intending to carry on some business of national importance is called:
(a) public company
(b) statutory corporation
(c) registered company
(d) registered statutory company
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the following statements in respect of a public limited company is correct?
(a) Those are no legal restrictions on allotment of shares
(b) The convent of directors an their contract to purchase qualification shares, if any, required must be filed
(c) Directors need not retire by rotation every year
(d) There are legal restrictions on remuneration of Directors
Ans. (b)
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Company Issue) (Company Document)
A. Affirmation of compliance with 1. Certificate of incorporation
the registration formalities
B. Classes of shares into which 2. Statutory declaration
shake capital is divided
C. Rules for forfeiture of shares 3. Memorandum of Association
D. Name and address of the company 4. Articles of association
auditor
5. Prospectus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 5
(b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 2 3 4 5
(d) 4 1 5 2
Ans. (c)
43. A special resolution for the alternation of the objects clause of the Memorandum of Association of a company having been passed, the alteration is to be confirmed by the:
(a) court concerned
(b) Central Government
(c) Company Law Board
(d) creditors of the Company
Ans. (c)
44. The last page of the record of proceedings of each meeting in minutes book shall be dated and signed by the Chairman of the same meeting within a period of 30 days of the conclusion of the meeting or in the event of death or inability of the Chairman within that period by:
(a) the managing Director
(b) a Director
(c) a Director duly authorized by the Board for that purpose
(d) The secretary
Ans. (c)
45. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Minutes are not required to be read at a sub general meeting.
2. Confirmation of Minutes is not an item of agenda in general meeting.
3. The chairman may disallow any matter which in his opinion is detrimental to the interests of the company from being included in the minutes.
4. Members cannot obtain copies of minutes through they can inspect them during business hours.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) l, 2and 3
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) 2, and 4
Ans. (b)
46. The agenda of the first Board Meeting of a limited company generally consists of the following items:
1. Election of chairman
2. Approval of draft prospectus
3. Appointment of officers, viz., The secretary, the manager and the accountant
4. Incorporation of the company and the legal advisor to report on the same
The correct order in which the above items of the agenda usually appear is:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 3,4,1,2
(d) 4,1,3,2
Ans. (d)
47. According to Sec. 2 (45) of the Companies Act (as amended in 1974), a Company Secretary must possess the qualifications prescribed from time
time by the:
(a) Company Law Board
(b) Central Government
(c) Registrar of Companies
(d) Parliament
Ans. (b)
48. The Company Secretary files ‘copies of resolutions passed in an Extraordinary General Meeting with the Registrar of Companies under section:
(a) 173
(b) 192
(c) 193
(d) 2.8
Ans. (b)
49. The first annual general meeting of company must be held within:
(a) one month from the date of its incorporation
(b) six months from the date of its incorporation
(c) 12 months from the date of its incorporation
(d) 18 months from the date of its incorporation
Ans.(c)
50. Which one the following statements relating to a company secretary are not correct?
(a) He is not likely to perform duties towards shareholders
(b) He is the mouthpiece of the Board of directors
(c) He may be considered to be the head of the administrative section of a company
(d) He is to arrange for Board meetings
Ans. (a)
(a) auditor
(b) management
(c) government
(d) shareholders
Ans. (b)
2. Auditing Standards differ from auditing procedures in that the procedures relate to:
(a) measures of performance
(b) audit principles
(c) acts to be performed
(d) audit judgments
Ans. (c)
3. What is the correct sequence of the following assignments?
1. Internal control
2. Test check
3. Internal check
4. Statutory audit
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 3. 1, 2, 4
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans. (c)
4. Statutory auditor of a company in the case of a casual vacancy may be appointed by the:
(a) Board of Directors
(b) Managing Director
(c) Extraordinary General meeting
(d) Government concerned
Ans. (a)
5. Which of the following are included in the ‘Statutory Books’ for the purpose of company audit ?
1. Register of charges
2. Minutes Books for the Board meetings
3. Articles of Association
4. Minutes Book for the shareholder’s meeting
5. Register of members
6. Memorandum of Association
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 2, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (b)
6. Consider the following statements:
A statutory auditor of a public limited company claims that he has the following legal rights in relation to his duties:
1. Right to refuse to make a report
2. Right of access to books of accounts and registers
3. Right to seek explanation from directors and officers -
4. Right to make statement in the general meeting
Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3, and 4 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans. (d)
7 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Duties of auditors 1. Access to Books of company
B. Rights of auditors 2. Penalty for non-compliance with sections 227 to 229
C. Liabilities of auditors 3. Company in general meeting
D. Removal of auditors 4. To make a report.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (a)
8, Consider the following functions of a stock exchange:
1. Providing a ready market for securities
2. Helping capital formation
3. Regulating the capital structure of a company
4. Regulating the public deposits with companies
Of the above functions:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) none is correct
Ans. (c)
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Minimum issued capital for being 1. One crore
listed on a stock exchange
B. Exemption from the consent of controller 2. Three crores
of capital issues for issue of shares
C. Amount payable on shares to be called only 3. Issued capital of less than
in installments and not in one stroke Rs. 3 crores
D Listing in OTC exchange 4. Issued capital of Rs.50 crores
and above
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (a)
10. In stock exchange operations, when the speculator buys the right to sell a certain number of shares on an agreed amount at a specified time it is known as:
(a) no option
(b) put option
(c) cal option
(d) double option
Ans. (b)
11. The jurisdiction of the M.R.T.P. commission with respect to monopolistic trade practices is not exercisable opon/under:
(a) a reference made to it by the Central Government
(b) an application made to it by the Director General
(c) its own knowledge or information
(d) any of the abovementioned circumstances.
Ans. (c)
12. Complete consolidation as a class of business
combination may include:
(a) mergers and amalgamations
(b) pools and cartels
(c) trusts and holding companies
(d) trade associations and chambers of commerce
Ans. (a)
13. Modernization of industries can be achieved by:
(a) ensuring proper enforcement of the provisions of BIFR Act
(b) permitting PSUs to disinvest
(c) strictly implementing the provisions of industrial (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
(d) creating consciousness among the industrialists about the need for modernization
Ans. (d)
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The preamble to the Industrial Development and Regulation/Act, 1951 is to provide for the development and regulation of certain industries
(b) The Central Government has the power to add any new undertakings to the first schedule
(c) Regulation of industries specified in the first schedule to the Act is sought to be achieved by means of:
(i) regulation of existing industrial undertakings,
(ii) licensing of new industrial undertakings and
(iii) licensing for producing new articles
(d) The new industrial policy was announced by the government on July 24, 1991
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied in a claim for loss by fire?
1. There must be actual fire.
2. Fire must be accidental.
3. Cause of fire must be ascertainable.
4. The goods must have been destroyed, not damaged by fire.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
16. A mixed marine policy means:
(a) combination of fire and marine losses coverage
(b)combination of voyage and time policies
(c) combination of all types of risk on the sea
(d) combination of export credit insurance and marine insurance
Ans. (b)
17. A building worth five lakhs of rupees is insured for one lakh rupees. There is an average clause in the policy. A portion of the building valued one lakh of rupees is destroyed by fire. The owner can claim and recover:
(a) one lakh rupees
(b) twenty thousand rupees minus the sale of proceeds of the debris
(c) five lakh rupees
(d) one lakh rupees minus the sale of proceeds of the debris
Ans. (b)
18. Every person has insurable interest in his own life up to:
(a) a maximum of Rs. 5,00,000
(b) twenty times his net salary drawn
(c) an unlimited extent provided the premium payable does not exceed 20% of his sales salary
(d) an unlimited extent
Ans. (d)
19. Plate-Glass is typical type of accident insurance and it is mainly applicable to
(a) personal accident
(b) motor cars
(c) retail trade
(d) house burglary
Ans. (d)
20. ‘Doctrine of Subrogation’ is used in:
(a) Life Insurance
(b) Fire Insurance
(c) Marine Insurance; Fire Insurance
(d) Joint Life Insurance
Ans. (c)
21. Consider the following statements:
The Exim Bank plays an active role in boosting exports in:
1. civil construction contract abroad
2. providing long term finance for export of capital goods
3. providing short term finance for import of capita! goods
4. providing short term finance for export of quality goods
Of the above statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans. (d)
22. Which one of the following is not in vogue now?
(a) REP Licenses
(b) Advance Licenses
(c) Special import Licenses
(d) Custom permit
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following items are not considered to be export promotion measures?
1. Quota certificate
2. Cash compensatory assistance
3. System of exchange control
4. Marketing development fund
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) l and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (a)
24. ‘Bill of lading’ is issued by:
(a) Indian commercial banks
(b) Foreign banks
(c) shipping company
(d) exporters
Ans. (c)
25. Which one of the following defines Co-ordination?
(a) Actuating force which inspires a person to put his best for the fulfillment of a task
(b) Orderly arrangement of group effort to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose
(c) Process of transmitting information from one person to another or from one unit to another
(4) Process of determining what is to be accomplished and what has been accomplished and if necessary applying corrective measures
Ans. (b)
26. Consider the following basic steps involved in the process of control:
1. Identifying the strategic control points
2. Establishing the standards
3. Measuring performance against standards
4. Correcting deviations from the standards
The correct sequence of the above steps in the process of control is:
(a) 1,4,3,2
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans. (d)
27 Effective direction does not depend on the:
(a) communication process
(b) forces at the subordinate level
(c) ability of the manager
(d) deployment of human resources
Ans. (d)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List -I List -II
(Management Thinkers) (Contribution/work)
A. Elton Mayo 1. Importance of integrating the company’s and employees’ goal
B. Frederick W.Taylor 2. Social Problems of Industrial civilization
C. Henri Fayol 3 .General and industrial management
D. Mary Parker Follet 4. Principles of Scientific Management
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (c)
29, An organization structure is effective if it enables individuals to contribute to the objectives of the enterprise. This is known as.:
(a) scalar principle
(b) principle of functional definition
(c) principle of unity of objectives
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
30. Which one of the following orders indicates the correct logical order of managerial functions?
(a) Organizing, planning, directing, staffing, coordination and control
(b) Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, coordination and control
(c) Planning, directing, organizing, staffing, control and coordination
(d) Organizing, planning, staffing, directing, control and coordination
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following pairs is Not correctly matched?
(a) Value of any security : The real value of any security is determined by the prior rights to the return of income.
(b) Debenture : It possesses maximum safety and normally offers regular and fixed income.
(c) Preference share : It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and fixed income by way of dividend.
(d) Equity share: It invites speculative tendency among the investors. There is risk of loss in such a share.
Ans. (a)
32. Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate ‘Cross Relationship’ under span of control?
(a) n {n- 1}
(b) n {2n -1}/ n
(c) n {2n+n-1}/n
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
33. V.A. Graiounasi has identified three sets of superior subordinate relationship, which are Direct single relationship, Direct Group relationship and Cross relationship.
Now if there are two, three, four and five subordinates respectively under one superior then in this context which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Number of the subordinates Total number of relationship
(a) 2 8
(b) 3 18
(c) 4 48
(d) 5 98
Ans. (b)
34. The main difference between delegation and decentralization is that:
(a) delegation refers primarily to transfer of authority from one individual to another while decentralization refers to systematic delegation of authority to all units in an organization
(b) delegation of authority can take place without decentralization whereas there cannot be decentralization without delegation of authority
(c) delegation represents sharing of excessive burden of key managerial personnel while decentralization refers to division of top managerial operations
(d) delegation may take place due to administrative, technical and routine reasons while decentralization involves deliberate action for the smooth functioning of the organization.
Ans. (a)
35. Management by exception introduces:
(a) selective, responsibility oriented reporting
(b) reporting of significant variances
(c) requirements of full reports on performance
(d) computation of actuals in different spheres of performance
Ans. (b)
36. Consider the following office equipments used in various offices:
1. Fax
2. Typewriter
3. Dictaphone
4. Letter opener
The correct order in which they are used is;
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 2,4,3,1
(d) 3,2,4,1
Ans; (b)
37. Consider the following four steps of purchasing office supplies:
1. Obtain quotation from vendors
2. Fill out quotation forms indicating requirements
3. Send forms to prospective vendors
4. Catalogue respective quotations
The correct sequence of the above steps is:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4,3,1
(c) 3,2,1,4
(d) 2,3,1,4
Ans. (d)
38. A public limited Company may in the general meeting, resolve to capitalize any part of the amount standing to the credit of any of its reserve accounts, upon the recommendation of the:
(a) Managing Director
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Financial Advisers
(d) shareholders
Ans. (b)
39. According to the Companies Act, 1956, a private company must have at least:
(a) seven directors
(b) three directors
(c) two directors
(d) one director
Ans. (c)
40. An enterprise incorporated by a Special Act of Parliament on the State Legislature intending to carry on some business of national importance is called:
(a) public company
(b) statutory corporation
(c) registered company
(d) registered statutory company
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the following statements in respect of a public limited company is correct?
(a) Those are no legal restrictions on allotment of shares
(b) The convent of directors an their contract to purchase qualification shares, if any, required must be filed
(c) Directors need not retire by rotation every year
(d) There are legal restrictions on remuneration of Directors
Ans. (b)
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Company Issue) (Company Document)
A. Affirmation of compliance with 1. Certificate of incorporation
the registration formalities
B. Classes of shares into which 2. Statutory declaration
shake capital is divided
C. Rules for forfeiture of shares 3. Memorandum of Association
D. Name and address of the company 4. Articles of association
auditor
5. Prospectus
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 5
(b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 2 3 4 5
(d) 4 1 5 2
Ans. (c)
43. A special resolution for the alternation of the objects clause of the Memorandum of Association of a company having been passed, the alteration is to be confirmed by the:
(a) court concerned
(b) Central Government
(c) Company Law Board
(d) creditors of the Company
Ans. (c)
44. The last page of the record of proceedings of each meeting in minutes book shall be dated and signed by the Chairman of the same meeting within a period of 30 days of the conclusion of the meeting or in the event of death or inability of the Chairman within that period by:
(a) the managing Director
(b) a Director
(c) a Director duly authorized by the Board for that purpose
(d) The secretary
Ans. (c)
45. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Minutes are not required to be read at a sub general meeting.
2. Confirmation of Minutes is not an item of agenda in general meeting.
3. The chairman may disallow any matter which in his opinion is detrimental to the interests of the company from being included in the minutes.
4. Members cannot obtain copies of minutes through they can inspect them during business hours.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) l, 2and 3
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) 2, and 4
Ans. (b)
46. The agenda of the first Board Meeting of a limited company generally consists of the following items:
1. Election of chairman
2. Approval of draft prospectus
3. Appointment of officers, viz., The secretary, the manager and the accountant
4. Incorporation of the company and the legal advisor to report on the same
The correct order in which the above items of the agenda usually appear is:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 3,4,1,2
(d) 4,1,3,2
Ans. (d)
47. According to Sec. 2 (45) of the Companies Act (as amended in 1974), a Company Secretary must possess the qualifications prescribed from time
time by the:
(a) Company Law Board
(b) Central Government
(c) Registrar of Companies
(d) Parliament
Ans. (b)
48. The Company Secretary files ‘copies of resolutions passed in an Extraordinary General Meeting with the Registrar of Companies under section:
(a) 173
(b) 192
(c) 193
(d) 2.8
Ans. (b)
49. The first annual general meeting of company must be held within:
(a) one month from the date of its incorporation
(b) six months from the date of its incorporation
(c) 12 months from the date of its incorporation
(d) 18 months from the date of its incorporation
Ans.(c)
50. Which one the following statements relating to a company secretary are not correct?
(a) He is not likely to perform duties towards shareholders
(b) He is the mouthpiece of the Board of directors
(c) He may be considered to be the head of the administrative section of a company
(d) He is to arrange for Board meetings
Ans. (a)
COMMERCE QUESTIONS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
Accounting Concepts and Standards
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below lists:
List -I List -II
A. Fixed assets are valued at cost less depreciation 1. Going-concem concept
B. Appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in 2. Materiality convention
accounting statements
C. Insignificant items or events having an insignificant 3. Business entity concept
economic effect need not be disclosed
D. Cash withdrawn by the owner to meet 4. Full-disclosure convention
personal expenses
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List –I List- II
(Content) (Accounting Standard)
A. Accounting for amalgamations 1. AS-3
B. Cash flow statements 2. AS-14
C. Net profit or loss for the period, prior period 3. AS-b
items and changes in accounting policies
B. Accounting for Fixed Assets 4. AS-5
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Share premium Revenue reserve
(b) Valuation of shares Super profit method
(c) Profit prior to incorporation Capital reserve
(d) Valuation of Goodwill Intrinsic value
Ans. (c)
4. By which of the following methods is secret reserve created?
1. Charging capital expenditure to revenue account
2. Showing contingent liability as actual liability
3. Providing less depreciation on fixed assets
4. Omitting some liabilities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps followed in accounting of transactions?
(a) Classification – Source – document – Summarization Recording
(b) Source of Summarization – document –Recording- Classification
(c) Recording—Summarization -Classification—Source of document
(d) Source of document -Classification—Recording— Summarization is Reg process of accounting
Ans. (b)
6. If Opening stock is-Rs 10000, Net purchases-Rs 70000, Wages-Rs 2500, Carriage inward-Rs. 500 and Closing stock-Rs. 15000.
Which one of the following is the Merchandizing cost?
(a) Rs.65000
(b) Rs 83000
(c) Rs 68000
(d) Rs 73000
Ans. (c)
7. If Assets of a business entity are—Rs 43000, Liabilities—Rs 3000, Capital—Rs 40000 op,0 1.03.2008 and on that date it sold goods costing Rs 4000 at Rs 4500 for cash. Which one of the following is the new accounting equation?
(a) Assets Rs 45500 = Liabilities Rs 3000 + Capital Rs 42500
(b) Assets Rs 43500= Liabilities Rs 3000 + Capital Rs 40500
(c) Assets Its 41000 = Liabilities Nil + Capital Rs 41000
(d) Assets Its 40500 = Liabilities Rs 3000 + Capital Rs 37500
Ans. (b)
8. Given below are the incomes and expenses an entity for the year 2007
Fee received in cash-Rs 24000, Accrued fees-Rs 6000, Rent for chamber paid 6000, Outstanding rent-Rs 2000, salary to staff paid-Rs 6000, Miscellaneous expenses paid-Rs 200 and Salary paid in advance to the staff-Rs 1000. Which one of the following is the amount of income under accrual basis?
(a) Rs 11800
(b) Rs 30000
(c) Rs 13200
(d) Rs 16800
Ans. (d)
9. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Capital expenditure 1. Money raised by issue of shares
B. Revenue expenditure 2. Preliminary expenses
C. Deferred revenue expenditure 3. Depreciation
D. Capital receipt 4. Freight on machinery purchased
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)
10. How is renewal fee for patent treated as?
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Deferred revenue expenditure
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Development expenditure
Ans. (b)
11. Given, Purchases Rs. 100000, Sales-Rs. 180000, Closing stock-Rs. 14000 and Manufacturing expenses-Rs 10000. Which one of the following is the value of Opening stock if the rate of gross profit is 33.3 % on cost?
(a) Rs. 28000
(b) Rs. 39000
(c) Rs. 37000
(d) Rs. 42000
Ans. (b)
12. X started a garment business on 01.01.2007 with a capital of Rs. 100000. Her capital on 31.12.2007 was Rs. 180000. During the period she introduced further capital of Rs. 30000 and withdrew from the business for domestic purpose Rs. 20000. Which one of the following is the value of her profit for the year ended 31.12.2007?
(a) Rs. 70000
(b) Rs. 170000
(c) Rs. 190000
(d) Rs. 77000
Ans. (a)
13. If a trader’s sales amount to Rs 18000 and his gross profit and net profit are 60% and 40% of sales respectively, which one of the following are his expenses if there is no indirect income?
(a) Rs 7200
(b) Rs 2500
(c) Rs 3600
(d) Rs 6480
Ans. (c)
14. Given, Balance of creditors of a firm as on January 01, 2007—Rs. 50000, Cash paid to creditors—Rs. 44000, Bills payable accepted during the year—Rs. 10000, Purchase returns Rs 1000 and Creditors as on December 31, 2007—Rs. 15000. Which one of the following is the credit purchase of the firm for the same period?
(a) Rs 15000
(b) Rs.25000
(c) Rs 20000
(d) Rs 30000
Ans. (c)
15. What does the balance of joint life policy account in the Balance Sheet of a partnership firm represent?
(a) Total premium paid to date
(b) Annual installment of premium payable each year
(c) The policy’s surrender value
(d) Amount receivable on maturity
Ans. (c)
16. Given the following information relating to bad debts and provision for doubtful debts of a concern during a period. Provisions for doubtful debts on 01.01 .2007—Rs. 6000, Bad debts written off during the current year 2007—Rs. 1200, Total debtors as on 31. l2.2007—Rs. 80000. A provision for doubtful debts to be made 5%
Which one of the following amounts is to be transferred to Profit and Loss Account?
(a) Rs. 5200 Dr.
(b) Rs. 800 Cr.
(c) Rs. 2000 Dr
(d) Rs. 800 Dr.
Ans. (a)
17. Given the following information of subscription for a period:
Subscription received during the year 2007—Rs. 12000
Subscription received in advance as on 01.01 .2007—Rs. 1500
Subscription outstanding as on 01.01 .2007—Rs. 500
Subscription outstanding as on 31.01 .2007—Rs. 700
Subscription received in advance as on 31. 12.2007—Rs. 2500
Which one of the following is the amount of subscription to be credited to Income and Expenditure Account?
(a) Rs. 14200
(b) Rs. 10700
(c) Rs. 11200
(d) Rs. 9100
Ans. (c)
18. X, Y and Z are partners in the ratio of 3:2:1. K, a new partner, is admitted for one-fourth share. Which of the following statements in this regard are correct?
1. K and Y will get equal amount of profit.
2. Z will have to bear the lowest amount of loss.
3. The ratio among X, Y and Z will not change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
19. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3: 2. C is admitted with one-third share in the profits. Which one of the following is the new profit-sharing ratio of the partners?
(a) 3:2:3
(b) 6:4:3
(c) 6:4:5
(d) 3:2:5
Ans. (d)
20. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 :3. C is admitted. The new profit sharing ratio among A, B and C is agreed at 3 2 1. There was a General reserve of Rs. 18000 before C’s admission. The General reserve will be distributed
(a) among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 :2: 1
(b) among A, B and C equally
(c) between A and B in the ratio of 5 : 3
(d) as per sacrificing ratio
Ans. (c)
21. Which one of the following transactions does not affect the Balance Sheet totals?
(a) Purchase of Rs. 5000 supplies on credit
(b) Payment of Rs. 30000 not payable
(c) Collection of Rs. 40000 from debtors
(d) Withdrawal of Rs. 8000 by owner
Ans. (c)
22. Consider -the following:
1. Fixed Assets
2. Investment
3. Current Assets
4. Loans and Advances
5. Profit and Loss Account
6. Miscellaneous Expenditure
Which one of the following is correct sequence of the above items appearing in the asset side of the Balance Sheet of a company as per Schedule VI, Part I of the Companies Act?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-5-3-4-6
(c) 2-1-3-5-6-4
(d) 1-2-3-4-6-5
Ans.(d)
23. Consider the following items of liability side of Balance Sheet of a company under the Head Reserve and Surplus:
1. Securities Premium Account
2. Sinking Fund
3. Capital Reserve
4. Capital Redemption Reserve
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of appearance of the above items in the Balance Sheet?
(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 3-4-2–1
(c) l-3-4-2
(d) 3-4-1-2
Ans. (b)
24. Which one of the following accounts is -neutralized in the event of issue of fully paid bonus shares by a company?
(a) Capital Reserve Account
(b) Bonus to Shareholders Account
(c) Share Capital Account
(d) General Reserve Account
Ans. (a)
25. Assertion (A) : Sinking fund is a charge against Profit and Loss Account.
Reason (R) : Sinking fund is created for repayment of a liability.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
26. Assertion (A) : When a company earns any profit prior to incorporation, it is called capital profit.
Reason (R) : Capital profit cannot be used for distribution as dividend to the shareholders.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
27. The following Journal Entry -appears in the books of F Ltd:
Dr. Cr.
Rs. Rs.
Bank Account 96000
Loss on Issue of Debenture Account 10000
To 8% Debenture Account 10000
To Premium on Redemption of 6000
Debenture Account
At which one of the following discounted rates have the debentures been issued?
(a)10%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d)10.42%
Ans. (b)
28. X Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs.5 per share were paid up. The company issued these shares @ Rs. 8 as fully paid up. Which one of the following is the amount transferred to Capital Reserve Account?
(a) Rs.40
(b) Rs.60
(c) Rs. 20
(d) Rs. 100
Ans. (b)
29. An increase in Share Premium Account is
(a) an application of fund
(b) a source of fund
(c) no flow of fund
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following is/are actually forfeited in case of share forfeiture?
1. Money already paid
2. Share certificate
3. Share capital
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, and 3
Ans. (a)
31. Consider the following:
1. Payment to preference shareholders who paid calls in advance
2. Preference dividend
3. Payment to debenture holders
4. Preferential creditors
Which one of the following i the correct order of preferential payments of the above to be followed by the official liquidator in the event of liquidation of the company as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 3-2-1-4
Ans. (a)
32. Which of the following transactions will improve acid-test ratio?
1. Bills payable dishonored
2. Cash collected from customers
3. Issue of convertible debentures
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Code:
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
33. Given, Sundry debtors-Rs. 15000, Bills receivable-Rs. 12500,
Cash at bank-Rs. 17500, Stock-Rs. 15000, Profit-Rs 20000,
Creditors-Rs. 25000, Bills payable-Rs. 15000 and Sales-Rs.
100000. Which one of the following is the acid-test ratio?
(a) 1.5:1
(b) 1.l25: 1
(c) 1:1.5
(d) 1:1.125
Ans. (b)
34. Given below are some of the items of Profit and Loss Account of X Company Ltd:
Sales-Rs. 160000, Closing stock-Rs. 38000, Non-operating expenses-Rs. 800, Non-operating income-Rs. 4800 and Net profit-Rs. 28000
Which one of the following is the operating profit ratio?
(a)18%
(b) 20%
(c)15%
(d) 57%
Ans. (c)
35. A company offers to its shareholders the right to buy one share of Rs. 100 at Rs. 150 for every three shares of Rs. 100 each held. The market value of each share is Its 200. Which one of the following is the value of the right for one share?
(a) Rs. 12.50
(b) Rs. 10.00
(c) Rs. 12.00
(d) Rs 11.50
Ans. (a)
36. X Ltd. issued 10000, 12% debentures of Rs 100 each at Its 94 on 01.01.2003 under the term that j-th of the debentures are redeemable annually by drawings. Which one of the following is the amount of discount to be written off at the end of the year 2003?
(a) Rs. 20000
(b) Rs.40000
(c) Rs. 66000
(d) Cannot be computed
Ans. (a)
37. Assertion (A) : Audit means checking of the arithmetical accuracy of books of accounts and statements by mechanical ticking of figures.
Reason (R) Mere knowledge of Accountancy is not sufficient for auditing.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and It is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
38. How can a subsequent auditor be removed from office before the expiry of his term?
(a) With the prior approval of the Company Law Board
(b) With the prior approval of the Central Government
(c) Simply by passing resolution in the Board of Directors’ meeting
(d) With the prior approval of the Registrar of Companies
Ans. (b)
39. Which one of the following is maintained by the auditor to record all matters of material importance which may require discussion with the client and are generally used in the preparation of his audit report?
(a) Auditor’s handbook
(b) Audit file
(c) Auditor’s diary
(d) Audit notebook
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following functions of purchase department:
1. Preparation of purchase order
2. Preparation of approved vendor list
3. Invitation of competitive quotation
4. Preparation of debit notes for materials returned
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in which
an auditor verifies the above functions?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 2-3-1-4
Ans. (d)
41. As per AAS-l5, which of the following should be considered by an auditor while determining the sample size?
1. Sampling risk
2. Market risk
3. Expected error
4. Tolerable error
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (c)
42. Who among the following can fill a casual vacancy caused in a company by way of resignation of the auditor?
(a) Board of Directors
(b) Shareholders through general meeting
(c) Central government
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans. (a)
43. Within which one of the following time periods, the first auditor of a newly incorporated company should be appointed?
(a) One week
(b) Three weeks
(c) One month
(d) Two months
Ans. (c)
44. Flow would the auditors approve the treatment of a lump sum amount by way of repairs to machinery damaged in the course of its shifting to a new site?
(a) As revenue expenditure
(b) As capital expenditure
(c) As deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
45. Which one of the following may be the opinion of an auditor where he fails to obtain sufficient information to warrant an expression of opinion?
(a) Qualified opinion
(b) Adverse or negative opinion
(c) Disclaimer of opinion
(d) Piecemeal opinion
Ans. (a)
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Management audit is statutorily compulsory.
2. Management auditor can be appointed either by Board of Directors or by the Shareholders.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
47. Which one of the following is known as a systematic examination of organizational structure of a concern, its plans, objectives, means of operation and the use of physical facilities and their constructive and comprehensive appraisal?
(a) System audit
(b) Management audit
(c) Statutory audit
(d) Procedural audit
Ans. (b)
48. As per the ICAI guidelines, for minimum how many years an auditor should maintain records relating to audit and other works done?
(a) One year
(b) Five years
(c) Seven years
(d) Ten years
Ans. (d)
49. Which one of the following courses of action is legally available to a company in the event of non-compliance of accounting standards?
(a) The company shall report the matter to the institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) The company shall report the matte. to the National Company Law Tribunal
(c) The company shall disclose the deviation from the accounting standards, reason for such deviation and the financial effect thereof
(d) The company shall ignore it
Ans. (c)
50. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List- I List-II
(Type of Fraud) (Example)
A. Suppression of receipts 1. Making payments against fictitious voucher
B. Inflating payments 2. Inflating the value of closing stock
C. Suppression of profits 3. Not accounting for receipts
B. Inflating profits 4. Charging items of capital nature to revenue
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (c)
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below lists:
List -I List -II
A. Fixed assets are valued at cost less depreciation 1. Going-concem concept
B. Appending notes regarding contingent liabilities in 2. Materiality convention
accounting statements
C. Insignificant items or events having an insignificant 3. Business entity concept
economic effect need not be disclosed
D. Cash withdrawn by the owner to meet 4. Full-disclosure convention
personal expenses
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List –I List- II
(Content) (Accounting Standard)
A. Accounting for amalgamations 1. AS-3
B. Cash flow statements 2. AS-14
C. Net profit or loss for the period, prior period 3. AS-b
items and changes in accounting policies
B. Accounting for Fixed Assets 4. AS-5
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Share premium Revenue reserve
(b) Valuation of shares Super profit method
(c) Profit prior to incorporation Capital reserve
(d) Valuation of Goodwill Intrinsic value
Ans. (c)
4. By which of the following methods is secret reserve created?
1. Charging capital expenditure to revenue account
2. Showing contingent liability as actual liability
3. Providing less depreciation on fixed assets
4. Omitting some liabilities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps followed in accounting of transactions?
(a) Classification – Source – document – Summarization Recording
(b) Source of Summarization – document –Recording- Classification
(c) Recording—Summarization -Classification—Source of document
(d) Source of document -Classification—Recording— Summarization is Reg process of accounting
Ans. (b)
6. If Opening stock is-Rs 10000, Net purchases-Rs 70000, Wages-Rs 2500, Carriage inward-Rs. 500 and Closing stock-Rs. 15000.
Which one of the following is the Merchandizing cost?
(a) Rs.65000
(b) Rs 83000
(c) Rs 68000
(d) Rs 73000
Ans. (c)
7. If Assets of a business entity are—Rs 43000, Liabilities—Rs 3000, Capital—Rs 40000 op,0 1.03.2008 and on that date it sold goods costing Rs 4000 at Rs 4500 for cash. Which one of the following is the new accounting equation?
(a) Assets Rs 45500 = Liabilities Rs 3000 + Capital Rs 42500
(b) Assets Rs 43500= Liabilities Rs 3000 + Capital Rs 40500
(c) Assets Its 41000 = Liabilities Nil + Capital Rs 41000
(d) Assets Its 40500 = Liabilities Rs 3000 + Capital Rs 37500
Ans. (b)
8. Given below are the incomes and expenses an entity for the year 2007
Fee received in cash-Rs 24000, Accrued fees-Rs 6000, Rent for chamber paid 6000, Outstanding rent-Rs 2000, salary to staff paid-Rs 6000, Miscellaneous expenses paid-Rs 200 and Salary paid in advance to the staff-Rs 1000. Which one of the following is the amount of income under accrual basis?
(a) Rs 11800
(b) Rs 30000
(c) Rs 13200
(d) Rs 16800
Ans. (d)
9. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
A. Capital expenditure 1. Money raised by issue of shares
B. Revenue expenditure 2. Preliminary expenses
C. Deferred revenue expenditure 3. Depreciation
D. Capital receipt 4. Freight on machinery purchased
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)
10. How is renewal fee for patent treated as?
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Deferred revenue expenditure
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Development expenditure
Ans. (b)
11. Given, Purchases Rs. 100000, Sales-Rs. 180000, Closing stock-Rs. 14000 and Manufacturing expenses-Rs 10000. Which one of the following is the value of Opening stock if the rate of gross profit is 33.3 % on cost?
(a) Rs. 28000
(b) Rs. 39000
(c) Rs. 37000
(d) Rs. 42000
Ans. (b)
12. X started a garment business on 01.01.2007 with a capital of Rs. 100000. Her capital on 31.12.2007 was Rs. 180000. During the period she introduced further capital of Rs. 30000 and withdrew from the business for domestic purpose Rs. 20000. Which one of the following is the value of her profit for the year ended 31.12.2007?
(a) Rs. 70000
(b) Rs. 170000
(c) Rs. 190000
(d) Rs. 77000
Ans. (a)
13. If a trader’s sales amount to Rs 18000 and his gross profit and net profit are 60% and 40% of sales respectively, which one of the following are his expenses if there is no indirect income?
(a) Rs 7200
(b) Rs 2500
(c) Rs 3600
(d) Rs 6480
Ans. (c)
14. Given, Balance of creditors of a firm as on January 01, 2007—Rs. 50000, Cash paid to creditors—Rs. 44000, Bills payable accepted during the year—Rs. 10000, Purchase returns Rs 1000 and Creditors as on December 31, 2007—Rs. 15000. Which one of the following is the credit purchase of the firm for the same period?
(a) Rs 15000
(b) Rs.25000
(c) Rs 20000
(d) Rs 30000
Ans. (c)
15. What does the balance of joint life policy account in the Balance Sheet of a partnership firm represent?
(a) Total premium paid to date
(b) Annual installment of premium payable each year
(c) The policy’s surrender value
(d) Amount receivable on maturity
Ans. (c)
16. Given the following information relating to bad debts and provision for doubtful debts of a concern during a period. Provisions for doubtful debts on 01.01 .2007—Rs. 6000, Bad debts written off during the current year 2007—Rs. 1200, Total debtors as on 31. l2.2007—Rs. 80000. A provision for doubtful debts to be made 5%
Which one of the following amounts is to be transferred to Profit and Loss Account?
(a) Rs. 5200 Dr.
(b) Rs. 800 Cr.
(c) Rs. 2000 Dr
(d) Rs. 800 Dr.
Ans. (a)
17. Given the following information of subscription for a period:
Subscription received during the year 2007—Rs. 12000
Subscription received in advance as on 01.01 .2007—Rs. 1500
Subscription outstanding as on 01.01 .2007—Rs. 500
Subscription outstanding as on 31.01 .2007—Rs. 700
Subscription received in advance as on 31. 12.2007—Rs. 2500
Which one of the following is the amount of subscription to be credited to Income and Expenditure Account?
(a) Rs. 14200
(b) Rs. 10700
(c) Rs. 11200
(d) Rs. 9100
Ans. (c)
18. X, Y and Z are partners in the ratio of 3:2:1. K, a new partner, is admitted for one-fourth share. Which of the following statements in this regard are correct?
1. K and Y will get equal amount of profit.
2. Z will have to bear the lowest amount of loss.
3. The ratio among X, Y and Z will not change.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
19. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3: 2. C is admitted with one-third share in the profits. Which one of the following is the new profit-sharing ratio of the partners?
(a) 3:2:3
(b) 6:4:3
(c) 6:4:5
(d) 3:2:5
Ans. (d)
20. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 :3. C is admitted. The new profit sharing ratio among A, B and C is agreed at 3 2 1. There was a General reserve of Rs. 18000 before C’s admission. The General reserve will be distributed
(a) among A, B and C in the ratio of 3 :2: 1
(b) among A, B and C equally
(c) between A and B in the ratio of 5 : 3
(d) as per sacrificing ratio
Ans. (c)
21. Which one of the following transactions does not affect the Balance Sheet totals?
(a) Purchase of Rs. 5000 supplies on credit
(b) Payment of Rs. 30000 not payable
(c) Collection of Rs. 40000 from debtors
(d) Withdrawal of Rs. 8000 by owner
Ans. (c)
22. Consider -the following:
1. Fixed Assets
2. Investment
3. Current Assets
4. Loans and Advances
5. Profit and Loss Account
6. Miscellaneous Expenditure
Which one of the following is correct sequence of the above items appearing in the asset side of the Balance Sheet of a company as per Schedule VI, Part I of the Companies Act?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-5-3-4-6
(c) 2-1-3-5-6-4
(d) 1-2-3-4-6-5
Ans.(d)
23. Consider the following items of liability side of Balance Sheet of a company under the Head Reserve and Surplus:
1. Securities Premium Account
2. Sinking Fund
3. Capital Reserve
4. Capital Redemption Reserve
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of appearance of the above items in the Balance Sheet?
(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 3-4-2–1
(c) l-3-4-2
(d) 3-4-1-2
Ans. (b)
24. Which one of the following accounts is -neutralized in the event of issue of fully paid bonus shares by a company?
(a) Capital Reserve Account
(b) Bonus to Shareholders Account
(c) Share Capital Account
(d) General Reserve Account
Ans. (a)
25. Assertion (A) : Sinking fund is a charge against Profit and Loss Account.
Reason (R) : Sinking fund is created for repayment of a liability.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
26. Assertion (A) : When a company earns any profit prior to incorporation, it is called capital profit.
Reason (R) : Capital profit cannot be used for distribution as dividend to the shareholders.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
27. The following Journal Entry -appears in the books of F Ltd:
Dr. Cr.
Rs. Rs.
Bank Account 96000
Loss on Issue of Debenture Account 10000
To 8% Debenture Account 10000
To Premium on Redemption of 6000
Debenture Account
At which one of the following discounted rates have the debentures been issued?
(a)10%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d)10.42%
Ans. (b)
28. X Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs.5 per share were paid up. The company issued these shares @ Rs. 8 as fully paid up. Which one of the following is the amount transferred to Capital Reserve Account?
(a) Rs.40
(b) Rs.60
(c) Rs. 20
(d) Rs. 100
Ans. (b)
29. An increase in Share Premium Account is
(a) an application of fund
(b) a source of fund
(c) no flow of fund
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following is/are actually forfeited in case of share forfeiture?
1. Money already paid
2. Share certificate
3. Share capital
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2, and 3
Ans. (a)
31. Consider the following:
1. Payment to preference shareholders who paid calls in advance
2. Preference dividend
3. Payment to debenture holders
4. Preferential creditors
Which one of the following i the correct order of preferential payments of the above to be followed by the official liquidator in the event of liquidation of the company as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 3-2-1-4
Ans. (a)
32. Which of the following transactions will improve acid-test ratio?
1. Bills payable dishonored
2. Cash collected from customers
3. Issue of convertible debentures
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Code:
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
33. Given, Sundry debtors-Rs. 15000, Bills receivable-Rs. 12500,
Cash at bank-Rs. 17500, Stock-Rs. 15000, Profit-Rs 20000,
Creditors-Rs. 25000, Bills payable-Rs. 15000 and Sales-Rs.
100000. Which one of the following is the acid-test ratio?
(a) 1.5:1
(b) 1.l25: 1
(c) 1:1.5
(d) 1:1.125
Ans. (b)
34. Given below are some of the items of Profit and Loss Account of X Company Ltd:
Sales-Rs. 160000, Closing stock-Rs. 38000, Non-operating expenses-Rs. 800, Non-operating income-Rs. 4800 and Net profit-Rs. 28000
Which one of the following is the operating profit ratio?
(a)18%
(b) 20%
(c)15%
(d) 57%
Ans. (c)
35. A company offers to its shareholders the right to buy one share of Rs. 100 at Rs. 150 for every three shares of Rs. 100 each held. The market value of each share is Its 200. Which one of the following is the value of the right for one share?
(a) Rs. 12.50
(b) Rs. 10.00
(c) Rs. 12.00
(d) Rs 11.50
Ans. (a)
36. X Ltd. issued 10000, 12% debentures of Rs 100 each at Its 94 on 01.01.2003 under the term that j-th of the debentures are redeemable annually by drawings. Which one of the following is the amount of discount to be written off at the end of the year 2003?
(a) Rs. 20000
(b) Rs.40000
(c) Rs. 66000
(d) Cannot be computed
Ans. (a)
37. Assertion (A) : Audit means checking of the arithmetical accuracy of books of accounts and statements by mechanical ticking of figures.
Reason (R) Mere knowledge of Accountancy is not sufficient for auditing.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and It is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and Rare individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
38. How can a subsequent auditor be removed from office before the expiry of his term?
(a) With the prior approval of the Company Law Board
(b) With the prior approval of the Central Government
(c) Simply by passing resolution in the Board of Directors’ meeting
(d) With the prior approval of the Registrar of Companies
Ans. (b)
39. Which one of the following is maintained by the auditor to record all matters of material importance which may require discussion with the client and are generally used in the preparation of his audit report?
(a) Auditor’s handbook
(b) Audit file
(c) Auditor’s diary
(d) Audit notebook
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following functions of purchase department:
1. Preparation of purchase order
2. Preparation of approved vendor list
3. Invitation of competitive quotation
4. Preparation of debit notes for materials returned
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in which
an auditor verifies the above functions?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 2-3-1-4
Ans. (d)
41. As per AAS-l5, which of the following should be considered by an auditor while determining the sample size?
1. Sampling risk
2. Market risk
3. Expected error
4. Tolerable error
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (c)
42. Who among the following can fill a casual vacancy caused in a company by way of resignation of the auditor?
(a) Board of Directors
(b) Shareholders through general meeting
(c) Central government
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans. (a)
43. Within which one of the following time periods, the first auditor of a newly incorporated company should be appointed?
(a) One week
(b) Three weeks
(c) One month
(d) Two months
Ans. (c)
44. Flow would the auditors approve the treatment of a lump sum amount by way of repairs to machinery damaged in the course of its shifting to a new site?
(a) As revenue expenditure
(b) As capital expenditure
(c) As deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
45. Which one of the following may be the opinion of an auditor where he fails to obtain sufficient information to warrant an expression of opinion?
(a) Qualified opinion
(b) Adverse or negative opinion
(c) Disclaimer of opinion
(d) Piecemeal opinion
Ans. (a)
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Management audit is statutorily compulsory.
2. Management auditor can be appointed either by Board of Directors or by the Shareholders.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
47. Which one of the following is known as a systematic examination of organizational structure of a concern, its plans, objectives, means of operation and the use of physical facilities and their constructive and comprehensive appraisal?
(a) System audit
(b) Management audit
(c) Statutory audit
(d) Procedural audit
Ans. (b)
48. As per the ICAI guidelines, for minimum how many years an auditor should maintain records relating to audit and other works done?
(a) One year
(b) Five years
(c) Seven years
(d) Ten years
Ans. (d)
49. Which one of the following courses of action is legally available to a company in the event of non-compliance of accounting standards?
(a) The company shall report the matter to the institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) The company shall report the matte. to the National Company Law Tribunal
(c) The company shall disclose the deviation from the accounting standards, reason for such deviation and the financial effect thereof
(d) The company shall ignore it
Ans. (c)
50. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List- I List-II
(Type of Fraud) (Example)
A. Suppression of receipts 1. Making payments against fictitious voucher
B. Inflating payments 2. Inflating the value of closing stock
C. Suppression of profits 3. Not accounting for receipts
B. Inflating profits 4. Charging items of capital nature to revenue
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (c)
COMMERCE QUESTIONS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS
1. What is the correct sequence of the following actions taken by an auditor?
1. Physical verification of assets
2. Routine checking
3. Preparing the audit programme
4. Vouching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) l-4-2-3
(b) 2-l-4-3
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 4-3-1-2
Ans. (c)
2. Balance Sheet audit is an audit in which
(a) Balance Sheets of a number of years are audited
(b) Audit of financial statements is done
(c) Audit is done at the end of the financial year
(d) Verification of assets and liabilities is done
Ans. (d)
3. ‘Teeming and lading’ refers to which one of the following?
(a) Misappropriation of cash receipts from debtors
(b) Misappropriation of cash by showing fictitious purchases
(c) Issue of cheque when there is insufficient bank balance
(d) Cheques received from debtors but not deposited within reasonable time
Ans. (a)
4. The term ‘kiting’ refers to which one of the following?
(a) Non-recording of cash receipts
(b) Manipulation in bank accounts
(c) Showing higher depreciation in fixed assets
(d) Inflating expenditure
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The verification of assets and liabilities is primarily the responsibility of the management.
2. Auditor has to satisfy that valuation of assets has been correctly made as per accounting standards and generally accepted principles.
Which of the statement(s) given above is fare correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of direct confirmation procedure in auditing?
1. Accurate physical verification of assets
2. Ascertaining accurate balances of debtors, loans and advances
3. Controlling of unnecessary expenditures
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
7. Which one of the following is an example of direct confirmation?
(a) Management gives certificate of cash in hand
(b) Reconciliation of bank balance
(c) Debtors certifying outstanding balance
(d) Counting of inventories by the auditor
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following does not fall under audit planning (AAS-8) ?
(a) Developing the audit programme
(b) Development of overall plan
(c) Knowledge of the client’s business
(d) Performance of the peer firms
Ans. (d)
9. Consider the following steps in the preparation of an audit programme:
1. To ascertain the nature and scope of audit and its objectives
2. To obtain different records, viz., articles and memorandum of associations, agreement deeds, prospectus and other documents
3. To evaluate the systems of keeping accounts and internal check and internal control system in operation
4. To obtain detailed list of books of accounts and list of personnel responsible for different jobs
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps involved in the preparation of an audit programme?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) l-3-2-4
Ans. (a)
10. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List- I List -II
(Tool) (Nature of Function)
A. Test checking 1. Physical verification
B. Cash counting 2. Internal control
C. Division of labour 3. Overall assessment
D. Trend analysis 4. Selective verification
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (d)
11. You have the information that X Ltd. has declared 40% dividend. Which one of the following does it actually mean?
(a) X Ltd. has declared 40% of net profit as dividend
(b) X Ltd. has declared 40% of profits after tax as dividend
(c) X Ltd. will give dividend @40% on issued capital
(d) X Ltd. will give dividend @ 40% on paid-up capital
Ans. (d)
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List -I List -II
A. Doctrine of indoor management 1. Kotla Venkataswami vs. Ramamurthy
B. Untrue statement in prospectus 2. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron vs. Riche
C. Doctrine of ultra vires 3. Green Wood vs. Leather Shod Wheel Co.
D. Doctrine of constructive notice 4. Royal British Bank vs. Turquand
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following exceptions for doctrine of indoor management was provided from Ruben vs. Great Fingall Consolidated case?
(a) Knowledge of irregularity
(b) Forgery
(c) Suspicion of irregularity
(d) An act outside apparent authority
Ans. (b)
14. The doctrine of indoor management seeks to
(a) protect outsider against the company.
(b) protect company against the outsider
(c) determine the relations between company and Directors.
(d) determine the relationship between Directors and auditor.
Ans. (a)
15. Under which of the following situations must dissolution of partnership take place?
1. At the expiry of the term
2. On the completion of a particular adventure
3. On death, insolvency or retirement of a partner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List -I List -II
(Document) (Use)
A. Bill of lading 1. To certify the origin of goods
B. Consular invoice 2. To transport cargo by ship
C. Packing slips 3. To inform about the contents of the package
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
17. In marine insurance, a partial loss is technically called as
(a) warranties.
(b) particular average.
(c) total loss.
(d) liabilities.
Ans. (b)
18. In which one of the following theories is it assumed that the psychological forces shaping peoples’ behavior are largely unconscious, and that a person cannot understand his or her own motivations?
(a) Maslow’s theory
(b) Herzberg’s theory
(c) Freud’s theory
(d) McGregor theory of X and Y
Ans. (c)
19. Consider the following statements:
Matrix organization is
1. most suitable when a project of a temporal nature is to be executed.
2. mostly seen in R & D and engineering organizations.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
20. Who among the following has advanced Transactional Analysis as an explanation of interpersonal communication strategy?
(a) Thomas A Harris
(b) Eric Frank
(c) Muriel James
(d) Eric Beme
Ans. (d)
21. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List -I List-II
(Theory of Motivation) (Contributor)
A. X, Y theory 1. Frederick Herzberg
B. Expectancy theory 2. J Stacey Adams
C. Two factor theory 3. Douglas McGregor
D. Equity theory 4. Victor Vroom
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (d)
22. Maslow’s need-hierarchy theory of motivation has classified the human needs into following five categories:
1. Safety needs
2. Esteem needs
3. Social needs
4. Physiological needs
5. Self-actualization needs
Which one of the following is correct hierarchy of the above needs from low order to high order?
(a) l-4-3-2–5
(b) 4-1-3-2-5
(c) 5-3-2-4-l
(d) 4- 1-2-5-3
Ans. (b)
23. Which one of the following is not included by Henry Mintzberg in the depiction of managerial roles?
(a) Interpersonal role
(b) Informational role
(c) Decisional role
(d) Organizing role
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following is/are correct regarding coordination?
1. Coordination cannot be voluntarily produced by number of cooperating persons.
2. Coordination is, for the most part, the result of voluntary attitudes on the part of people in an organization.
3. Coordination is a far more inclusive term embracing the idea of cooperation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
25. Who among the following has advanced the Power, Affiliation and Achievement motivation concepts?
(a) J. Stacey Adams
(b) BR Skinner
(c) Victor Vroom
(d) David C. McClelland
Ans. (d)
26. Which one of the following is not a method of performance appraisal?
(a) Grading method
(b) Behaviorally-anchored rating scale method
(c) Forced distribution method
(d) Paired comparison method
Ans. (a)
27. Consider the following statements about individual incentive system:
1. Individual incentive plans are used more frequently than organization based plans.
2. Individual plans can sometimes cause undesirable competition among peers.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
28. Which one of the following is an analytical method of job evaluation?
(a) Classification method
(b) Point -rating method
(c) Projection method
(d) Ranking method
Ans. (b)
29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given above the Lists:
List -I List -II
(Contributor) (Management Thought/Theory)
A. Mary Parker Follett 1.Human relations
B. Henri Fayo 2.Integration theory
C. Elton Mayo 3.Scientific management
D. F.W. Taylor. 4 principles of management
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
30. Identify the correct sequence of the following with regard to delegation of authority:
1. Creation of obligation
2. Authorization of actions
3. Determination of expected results
4. Assignment of duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 3-2-4-1
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 1-4-2-3
(d) 3-4-2-1
Ans. (d)
31. Consider the following statements with regard to ‘management by objectives’:
1. Overall objectives are set at the top of the organizational hierarchy.
2. Individual objectives coincide with the objectives of the organization.
3. Performances of employees are evaluated periodically.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans. (a)
32. If a situation calls for pooling the authority of two or more managers, it is referred to as
(a) splintered authority.
(b) centralized authority.
(c) decentralized authority.
(d) recentralized authority.
Ans. (a)
33. Which one of the following functions is concerned with synchronizing and unifying the actions of a group of people in an organization?
(a) Directing
(b) Controlling
(c) Coordinating
(d) Staffing
Ans. (c)
34. With which one of the following is force-field analysis associated?
(a) Understanding the pressure for and against change
(b) Incessant coordination between production schedule and product distribution schedule
(c) Understanding the process of coordination to ensure promptness and avoid red tapism
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
35. Which one of the following management thinkers argued in favour of separating planning from operation?
(a) Henri Fayol
(b) Luther Gulick
(c) L.F. Urwick
(d) F.W.Taylor
Ans. (d)
36. The balance brought out between economic and social models of decision-making as advanced by Herbert A Simon is called
(a) rational model
(b) satisfying model.
(c) irrational model.
(d) satisfying model.
Ans. (d)
37. For calculating, which one of the following is Dr. Aykroyd’s formula applied?
(a) Living wage
(b) Fair wage
(c) Real and nominal wage
(d) Need based minimum wage
Ans. (d)
38. Who among the following has observed that bureaucratic staff increases in inverse proportion to the amount of work done?
(a) Laurence J. Peter
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) Warren G. Bennis
(d) Northcote Parkinson
Ans. (d)
39. Under which one of the following conditions does false positive staffing error occur?
(a) Selection as well as performance scores are high
(b) Selection scores are low and performance scores are high
(c) Selection scores are high and performance scores are low
(d) Both selection and performance scores are low
Ans. (c)
40. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Selection Step) (Objective)
A. Reference checks 1. Swift evaluation of candidate
B. Preliminary interview 2. Evaluation of candidate including measuring mannerisms,
vocabulary, temperament, etc.
C. Selection test 3. Check authenticity provided in application blanks
D. Comprehensive interview 4. Measuring IQ of the candidate
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
41. Consider the following stages of planned change:
1. Moving
2. Refreezing
3. Unfreezing
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
above according to Kurt Lewin?
(a) 1-2-3
(c) 3-1-2
(b) 2-3-1
(d) 1-3-2
Ans. (c)
42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List- I List- II
(Contributor) (Leadership Style)
A. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton 1. Four-system model
B. W.J. Reddin 2. Normative model
C. Rensis Likert 3. Managerial grid
D. Vroom and Yetton 4. The 3-D theory
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
43. Which one of the following is not a dimension of the managerial grid theory of leadership?
(a) Country club management
(b) Impoverished management
(c) Team management
(d) Entrepreneurship management
Ans. (b)
44. Which one of the following is the correct sequence with regard to communication process?
(a) Sender-Message-Encoding-Receiver – Channel Decoding- Feedback
(b) Message-Sender –Encoding-Receiver- Channel-Decoding -Feedback
(c) Encoding -Message –Sender-Decoding –Feedback-Receiver-Channel
(d) Sender-Message- Encoding-Channel-Receiver-Decoding-Feedback
Ans. (c)
45. Gangplank theory of communication, advanced by Henri Fayol, is an example of which one of the following
(a) Vertical upward communication
(b) Vertical downward communication
(c) Lateral or horizontal communication
(d) Cyclic or circular communication
Ans. (c)
46. Which one of the following is signified by the Moosa Goolam Ariff vs. Ebrahim Goolam Ariff case?
(a) The certificate of incorporation is a conclusive proof of validity
(b) The certificate of incorporation is for the commencement of the business
(c) The certificate of incorporation places limit on the working of the Directors
(d) Company can be revived after dissolution
Ans. (a)
47. Company Law Information Memorandum, as per section 60 (B) of the Companies Act, 1956 is related to
(a) the Directors responsibility statement.
(b) corporate governance,
(c) initial public offering,
(d) accounting standard relating to finance and investment companies.
Ans. (c)
48. Statutory Report
(a) shall be prepared by Board of Directors and forwarded 21 days before the statutory meeting.
(b) shall be prepared by the Secretary and forwarded 21 days before the statutory meeting.
(c) can be prepared by anyone and there is no time period prescribed.
(d) shall be prepared by the auditor and forwarded 30 days before the statutory meeting.
Ans. (a)
49. Which one of the following is the penalty imposed under the Companies Act for contravening the provisions relating to acquisition and transfer of shares?
(a) Imprisonment for a term extending to three years or with fine which may extent to rupees fifty thousand or both
(b) imprisonment for term extending to six years or with fine which may extend to rupees ten thousand or both
(c) Imprisonment for a term extending to one year or with fine which may extend to rupees five thousand or both
(d) imprisonment for a term extending to five years or with fine which may extend to rupees twenty-five thousand or both
Ans. (a)
50. Which among the following can issue shelf prospectus?
(a) Any company
(b) Only public limited company
(c) Any public financial institution
(d) Only private companies
Ans. (c)
1. Physical verification of assets
2. Routine checking
3. Preparing the audit programme
4. Vouching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) l-4-2-3
(b) 2-l-4-3
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 4-3-1-2
Ans. (c)
2. Balance Sheet audit is an audit in which
(a) Balance Sheets of a number of years are audited
(b) Audit of financial statements is done
(c) Audit is done at the end of the financial year
(d) Verification of assets and liabilities is done
Ans. (d)
3. ‘Teeming and lading’ refers to which one of the following?
(a) Misappropriation of cash receipts from debtors
(b) Misappropriation of cash by showing fictitious purchases
(c) Issue of cheque when there is insufficient bank balance
(d) Cheques received from debtors but not deposited within reasonable time
Ans. (a)
4. The term ‘kiting’ refers to which one of the following?
(a) Non-recording of cash receipts
(b) Manipulation in bank accounts
(c) Showing higher depreciation in fixed assets
(d) Inflating expenditure
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The verification of assets and liabilities is primarily the responsibility of the management.
2. Auditor has to satisfy that valuation of assets has been correctly made as per accounting standards and generally accepted principles.
Which of the statement(s) given above is fare correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
6. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of direct confirmation procedure in auditing?
1. Accurate physical verification of assets
2. Ascertaining accurate balances of debtors, loans and advances
3. Controlling of unnecessary expenditures
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
7. Which one of the following is an example of direct confirmation?
(a) Management gives certificate of cash in hand
(b) Reconciliation of bank balance
(c) Debtors certifying outstanding balance
(d) Counting of inventories by the auditor
Ans. (c)
8. Which one of the following does not fall under audit planning (AAS-8) ?
(a) Developing the audit programme
(b) Development of overall plan
(c) Knowledge of the client’s business
(d) Performance of the peer firms
Ans. (d)
9. Consider the following steps in the preparation of an audit programme:
1. To ascertain the nature and scope of audit and its objectives
2. To obtain different records, viz., articles and memorandum of associations, agreement deeds, prospectus and other documents
3. To evaluate the systems of keeping accounts and internal check and internal control system in operation
4. To obtain detailed list of books of accounts and list of personnel responsible for different jobs
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps involved in the preparation of an audit programme?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) l-3-2-4
Ans. (a)
10. Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List- I List -II
(Tool) (Nature of Function)
A. Test checking 1. Physical verification
B. Cash counting 2. Internal control
C. Division of labour 3. Overall assessment
D. Trend analysis 4. Selective verification
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (d)
11. You have the information that X Ltd. has declared 40% dividend. Which one of the following does it actually mean?
(a) X Ltd. has declared 40% of net profit as dividend
(b) X Ltd. has declared 40% of profits after tax as dividend
(c) X Ltd. will give dividend @40% on issued capital
(d) X Ltd. will give dividend @ 40% on paid-up capital
Ans. (d)
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List -I List -II
A. Doctrine of indoor management 1. Kotla Venkataswami vs. Ramamurthy
B. Untrue statement in prospectus 2. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron vs. Riche
C. Doctrine of ultra vires 3. Green Wood vs. Leather Shod Wheel Co.
D. Doctrine of constructive notice 4. Royal British Bank vs. Turquand
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b)
13. Which one of the following exceptions for doctrine of indoor management was provided from Ruben vs. Great Fingall Consolidated case?
(a) Knowledge of irregularity
(b) Forgery
(c) Suspicion of irregularity
(d) An act outside apparent authority
Ans. (b)
14. The doctrine of indoor management seeks to
(a) protect outsider against the company.
(b) protect company against the outsider
(c) determine the relations between company and Directors.
(d) determine the relationship between Directors and auditor.
Ans. (a)
15. Under which of the following situations must dissolution of partnership take place?
1. At the expiry of the term
2. On the completion of a particular adventure
3. On death, insolvency or retirement of a partner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List -I List -II
(Document) (Use)
A. Bill of lading 1. To certify the origin of goods
B. Consular invoice 2. To transport cargo by ship
C. Packing slips 3. To inform about the contents of the package
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 1 2
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 2 1
Ans. (b)
17. In marine insurance, a partial loss is technically called as
(a) warranties.
(b) particular average.
(c) total loss.
(d) liabilities.
Ans. (b)
18. In which one of the following theories is it assumed that the psychological forces shaping peoples’ behavior are largely unconscious, and that a person cannot understand his or her own motivations?
(a) Maslow’s theory
(b) Herzberg’s theory
(c) Freud’s theory
(d) McGregor theory of X and Y
Ans. (c)
19. Consider the following statements:
Matrix organization is
1. most suitable when a project of a temporal nature is to be executed.
2. mostly seen in R & D and engineering organizations.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
20. Who among the following has advanced Transactional Analysis as an explanation of interpersonal communication strategy?
(a) Thomas A Harris
(b) Eric Frank
(c) Muriel James
(d) Eric Beme
Ans. (d)
21. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List -I List-II
(Theory of Motivation) (Contributor)
A. X, Y theory 1. Frederick Herzberg
B. Expectancy theory 2. J Stacey Adams
C. Two factor theory 3. Douglas McGregor
D. Equity theory 4. Victor Vroom
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (d)
22. Maslow’s need-hierarchy theory of motivation has classified the human needs into following five categories:
1. Safety needs
2. Esteem needs
3. Social needs
4. Physiological needs
5. Self-actualization needs
Which one of the following is correct hierarchy of the above needs from low order to high order?
(a) l-4-3-2–5
(b) 4-1-3-2-5
(c) 5-3-2-4-l
(d) 4- 1-2-5-3
Ans. (b)
23. Which one of the following is not included by Henry Mintzberg in the depiction of managerial roles?
(a) Interpersonal role
(b) Informational role
(c) Decisional role
(d) Organizing role
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following is/are correct regarding coordination?
1. Coordination cannot be voluntarily produced by number of cooperating persons.
2. Coordination is, for the most part, the result of voluntary attitudes on the part of people in an organization.
3. Coordination is a far more inclusive term embracing the idea of cooperation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
25. Who among the following has advanced the Power, Affiliation and Achievement motivation concepts?
(a) J. Stacey Adams
(b) BR Skinner
(c) Victor Vroom
(d) David C. McClelland
Ans. (d)
26. Which one of the following is not a method of performance appraisal?
(a) Grading method
(b) Behaviorally-anchored rating scale method
(c) Forced distribution method
(d) Paired comparison method
Ans. (a)
27. Consider the following statements about individual incentive system:
1. Individual incentive plans are used more frequently than organization based plans.
2. Individual plans can sometimes cause undesirable competition among peers.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
28. Which one of the following is an analytical method of job evaluation?
(a) Classification method
(b) Point -rating method
(c) Projection method
(d) Ranking method
Ans. (b)
29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given above the Lists:
List -I List -II
(Contributor) (Management Thought/Theory)
A. Mary Parker Follett 1.Human relations
B. Henri Fayo 2.Integration theory
C. Elton Mayo 3.Scientific management
D. F.W. Taylor. 4 principles of management
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
30. Identify the correct sequence of the following with regard to delegation of authority:
1. Creation of obligation
2. Authorization of actions
3. Determination of expected results
4. Assignment of duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 3-2-4-1
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 1-4-2-3
(d) 3-4-2-1
Ans. (d)
31. Consider the following statements with regard to ‘management by objectives’:
1. Overall objectives are set at the top of the organizational hierarchy.
2. Individual objectives coincide with the objectives of the organization.
3. Performances of employees are evaluated periodically.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans. (a)
32. If a situation calls for pooling the authority of two or more managers, it is referred to as
(a) splintered authority.
(b) centralized authority.
(c) decentralized authority.
(d) recentralized authority.
Ans. (a)
33. Which one of the following functions is concerned with synchronizing and unifying the actions of a group of people in an organization?
(a) Directing
(b) Controlling
(c) Coordinating
(d) Staffing
Ans. (c)
34. With which one of the following is force-field analysis associated?
(a) Understanding the pressure for and against change
(b) Incessant coordination between production schedule and product distribution schedule
(c) Understanding the process of coordination to ensure promptness and avoid red tapism
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
35. Which one of the following management thinkers argued in favour of separating planning from operation?
(a) Henri Fayol
(b) Luther Gulick
(c) L.F. Urwick
(d) F.W.Taylor
Ans. (d)
36. The balance brought out between economic and social models of decision-making as advanced by Herbert A Simon is called
(a) rational model
(b) satisfying model.
(c) irrational model.
(d) satisfying model.
Ans. (d)
37. For calculating, which one of the following is Dr. Aykroyd’s formula applied?
(a) Living wage
(b) Fair wage
(c) Real and nominal wage
(d) Need based minimum wage
Ans. (d)
38. Who among the following has observed that bureaucratic staff increases in inverse proportion to the amount of work done?
(a) Laurence J. Peter
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) Warren G. Bennis
(d) Northcote Parkinson
Ans. (d)
39. Under which one of the following conditions does false positive staffing error occur?
(a) Selection as well as performance scores are high
(b) Selection scores are low and performance scores are high
(c) Selection scores are high and performance scores are low
(d) Both selection and performance scores are low
Ans. (c)
40. Match List -I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Selection Step) (Objective)
A. Reference checks 1. Swift evaluation of candidate
B. Preliminary interview 2. Evaluation of candidate including measuring mannerisms,
vocabulary, temperament, etc.
C. Selection test 3. Check authenticity provided in application blanks
D. Comprehensive interview 4. Measuring IQ of the candidate
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
41. Consider the following stages of planned change:
1. Moving
2. Refreezing
3. Unfreezing
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
above according to Kurt Lewin?
(a) 1-2-3
(c) 3-1-2
(b) 2-3-1
(d) 1-3-2
Ans. (c)
42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List- I List- II
(Contributor) (Leadership Style)
A. Robert Blake and Jane Mouton 1. Four-system model
B. W.J. Reddin 2. Normative model
C. Rensis Likert 3. Managerial grid
D. Vroom and Yetton 4. The 3-D theory
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (a)
43. Which one of the following is not a dimension of the managerial grid theory of leadership?
(a) Country club management
(b) Impoverished management
(c) Team management
(d) Entrepreneurship management
Ans. (b)
44. Which one of the following is the correct sequence with regard to communication process?
(a) Sender-Message-Encoding-Receiver – Channel Decoding- Feedback
(b) Message-Sender –Encoding-Receiver- Channel-Decoding -Feedback
(c) Encoding -Message –Sender-Decoding –Feedback-Receiver-Channel
(d) Sender-Message- Encoding-Channel-Receiver-Decoding-Feedback
Ans. (c)
45. Gangplank theory of communication, advanced by Henri Fayol, is an example of which one of the following
(a) Vertical upward communication
(b) Vertical downward communication
(c) Lateral or horizontal communication
(d) Cyclic or circular communication
Ans. (c)
46. Which one of the following is signified by the Moosa Goolam Ariff vs. Ebrahim Goolam Ariff case?
(a) The certificate of incorporation is a conclusive proof of validity
(b) The certificate of incorporation is for the commencement of the business
(c) The certificate of incorporation places limit on the working of the Directors
(d) Company can be revived after dissolution
Ans. (a)
47. Company Law Information Memorandum, as per section 60 (B) of the Companies Act, 1956 is related to
(a) the Directors responsibility statement.
(b) corporate governance,
(c) initial public offering,
(d) accounting standard relating to finance and investment companies.
Ans. (c)
48. Statutory Report
(a) shall be prepared by Board of Directors and forwarded 21 days before the statutory meeting.
(b) shall be prepared by the Secretary and forwarded 21 days before the statutory meeting.
(c) can be prepared by anyone and there is no time period prescribed.
(d) shall be prepared by the auditor and forwarded 30 days before the statutory meeting.
Ans. (a)
49. Which one of the following is the penalty imposed under the Companies Act for contravening the provisions relating to acquisition and transfer of shares?
(a) Imprisonment for a term extending to three years or with fine which may extent to rupees fifty thousand or both
(b) imprisonment for term extending to six years or with fine which may extend to rupees ten thousand or both
(c) Imprisonment for a term extending to one year or with fine which may extend to rupees five thousand or both
(d) imprisonment for a term extending to five years or with fine which may extend to rupees twenty-five thousand or both
Ans. (a)
50. Which among the following can issue shelf prospectus?
(a) Any company
(b) Only public limited company
(c) Any public financial institution
(d) Only private companies
Ans. (c)
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