SUCCESS MIRROR MAGAZINE JULY 2010

SUCCESS MIRROR MAGAZINE JULY 2010 CLICK HERE

TTD JUNIOR ASSISTANTS RECRUITMENT

TIRUMALA TIRUPATI DEVASTHANAMS : TIRUPATI
NOTIFICATION No. 26/2009-2010.

Online applications are invited from the eligible candidates for the posts of Junior
Assistant in TTD with the following qualifications. The last date for filing of online
application is 30-07-2010. The TTD management has right to cancel / postpone the
notification and selection process if any, on administrative reasons.

TTD JUNIOR ASSISTANTS RECRUITMENT CLICK HERE

TTD Jr ASST. EXAM CONTAINS

English
maths
reasoning
General Awareness & current affairs and
about tirumala history.
Exam may be held at Tirupathi. If more candidates applied for this post exam conducts other places also.

For offical information see www.tirumala.org website after 05 August 2010

JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYAS SELECTION TEST FOR CLASS VI PAPER

JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYAS SELECTION TEST FOR CLASS VI PAPER CLICK HERE

AP ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNAL JUNIOR ASSISTANTS EXAM MODEL PAPER

AP ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNAL JUNIOR ASSISTANTS EXAM MODEL PAPER CLICK HERE

VACANCIES OF AEO (GRADE II) IN KRISHNA DISTRICT FOR WOMEN

VACANCIES OF AEO (GRADE II) IN KRISHNA DISTRICT CLICK HERE

VACANCIES OF AEO (GRADE II) IN KRISHNA DISTRICT

VACANCIES OF AEO (GRADE II) IN KRISHNA DISTRICT CLICK HERE

Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) Management Trainee Recruitment Exam.

Solved Sample Question Paper for Vizag Steel Plant (VSP) Management Trainee Recruitment Exam.

Section - I
Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)
1. Four prime numbers are written in ascending order of their magnitudes the product of the first three is 385 and that of the last three is 1001. The largest given prime number is
a. 11
b. 13
c. 17
d. 19
2. Mahavir deposited in the bank from Monday to Saturday the amounts of Rs. 87.80, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 3677.98, Rs. 92899.01, Rs. 66 and Rs. 554945.19 respectively. Find his total deposit for this week
a. Rs. 651879.61
b. Rs. 652779.61
c. Rs. 650879.51
d. Rs. 655889.71
3. Amar deposited in Vijay Bank Rs. 259206.16 on Monday. Rs. 201890.48 on Tuesday, Rs. 284.16 on Wednesday. He withdrew Rs. 50000.00 on Thursday. He again deposited Rs. 230.01 on Friday and Rs. 72.62 on Saturday. Find his total balance in the bank for this week
a. Rs. 501783.43
b. Rs. 501683.43
c. Rs. 511693.43
d. Rs. 511683.43
4. I was born on October 17, 1927. How old I was on Jan. 26, 1978?
a. 49 years and 101 days
b. 50 years and 100 days
c. 50 years and 101 days
d. 50 years and 103 days
5. Find the total of the following amount
Rs. 1230.79, Rs. 11368.08, Rs. 203.63, Rs. 10314.89, Rs. 64.8, Rs. 101.00 and Rs. 3677.98
a. Rs. 27961.1
b. Rs. 26961.17
c. Rs. 26951.17
d. Rs. 25961.17
6. How many pieces, each of length 4.5 m can be cut of 225 m of wire?
a. 40
b. 54
c. 56
d. 50
7. Parkash and Girish were travelling together. Prakash paid Rs. 200 for their stay in a hotel and Girish paid taxi fare of Rs. 80. If they have to share these expenses equally, then
a. Prakash should pay Rs. 60 to Girish
b. Girish should pay Rs. 120 to Prakash
c. Girish should pay Rs. 60 to Prakash
d. Prakash should pay Rs. 120 to Girish
8. Sum of the numbers from 1 to 20 is
a. 210
b. 110
c. 220
d. 105
9. Which of the following is equal to 115 x 15?
a. 105 x 10 + 115 x 5
b. 11 x 515
c. 1151 x 5
d. 110 x 15 + 5 x 15
10. The unit's digit in the sum (264)¹⁰² + (264)¹⁰³ is
a. 0
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
11. The smallest natural number by which the product of 3 consecutive even numbers is always divisible is
a. 16
b. 32
c. 48
d. 96
12. The number of prime factors of (6)¹⁰ x (7)¹⁷ x (55)²⁷ is
a. 54
b. 64
c. 81
d. 91
13. The total income of Hazari and Murari is Rs. 3000. Hazari spends 60% of his income and Murari spends 80% of his income. If their savings are equal. Find the income of Hazari
a. Rs. 2000
b. Rs. 3000
c. Rs. 1500
d. Rs. 1000
14. Bholanath save 25% if his income, but due to dearness the expenses increased by 25%, still he saves Rs. 30. Find his income
a. Rs. 400
b. Rs. 480
c. Rs. 450
d. Rs. 475
15. In a city 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich 10% are illiterate. What percentage of the poor population is illiterate?
a. 36%
b. 60%
c. 40%
d. None of these

Section - II
Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)
Directions (Q 1-5): Find the missing characters from the following series
1. ab _ a _ b _ a _ bba
a. aaab
b. baba
c. abba
d. baab
2. _ bc _ _ bb _ aabc
a. abab
b. caab
c. acac
d. aaab
3. cc _ a _ cabccb _ cca _ c _ ba
a. cbaba
b. bacbc
c. bcabc
d. abcbc
4. cba _ cb _ ccb _ c _
a. caac
b. cbca
c. cbac
d. cabc
5. aa _ cb _ aa _ _ bba _ ccb _
a. cabaac
b. ababab
c. cbccab
d. aaabca
6. If day before yesterday was Sunday then next Monday will be after ____ days.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
7. If Sept 9 was Friday then the last Tuesday of the same Month will fall on
a. 25
b. 26
c. 27
d. 28
8. If the month of May begins on Sunday then the third Friday will fall on
a. 19
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22
9. If January 31 in a particular year falls on a Saturday then January 1 will be
a. Sunday
b. Tuesday
c. Thursday
d. Monday
10. At 6 PM the hour hand of a clock will point towards
a. North
b. South
c. SW
d. SE
11. A boy walked 400 m north from his home, then he turned right and walked 100 m, then he turned left and walked 500 m. in which direction is he walking now
a. North
b. South
c. NE
d. NW
12. A car starts from a point A. Then it moves 4 KM towards South. Then it turns right and moves 3 KM. How far is it from point A now.
a. 3 KM
b. 4 KM
c. 5 KM
d. 0 KM
13. 3, 10, 29, 66, _
a. 137
b. 127
c. 103
d. 218
14. 41, 29, 19, 11, _
a. 5
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3
15. ZXUQ : ACFJ : : NLIE : :
a. KMQT
b. KMPU
c. LMPT
d. KMPT


Answers
Section - I Quantitative Aptitude (Arithmetic)
1. b, 2. a, 3. d, 4. c, 5. b
6. d, 7. c, 8. a, 9. d, 10. b
11. a, 12. d, 13. d, 14. b, 15. a
Section - II Mental Aptitude (Analytical Reasoning)
1. b, 2. c, 3. c, 4. a, 5. c
6. c, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b
11. a, 12. c, 13. b, 14. a, 15. d

Vizag steel plant Management Trainee (MT)Exam paper 2009

1 An ice block submerged in the water, if the ice melts level of water (increase,decrease,remains same,none)
2 Simply supported beam with w point load at the middle, max. bending moment?(wl/4)
3 Simply supported beam with UDL ,max.deflection (wl4/384EI)
4 Cantilevel beam point load at tip,max.bending momemt comes at (end)
5 When bearing life L10 represents (bearings 10%survive,bearings 10% fails, none )
6 For welding high carbon steels which type of flame is used (oxidizing,carburizing,neutral,none)
7. Arrange the following cutting tools in decreasing order of machining hardness…Ceramics
8. When P1 and P2 are the loads acting on bearings with life L1 and L2 then L1/L2=?L1/L2={P2/P1}10/3
9.Product simplification does not mean??Product characterization
10 Which of the following process has the most scope in manufacturing? CAD/CAM, CAM, CIM, All the above.
11. Concurrent engineering means? (Manufacturing, designing, both,none)
12. Which manufacturing process yields higher output and increases worker productivity-(process layout,line+process,functional layout)
13. 18-4-1 represents-, Tungsten-Cr-Vn
14 For which material is negative allowance provided-(Graphite,steel,bronze,cast iron)
15. What is the recrystallisation temperature of tin- (60,300,1000,none)
16. What is the purpose of borax in soldering-
17. Top gates are provided in which type of casting-(Shallow casting,simple,complex,none)18. Which statement is true regarding simple gear trains-(i/p and o/p shafts r fixed, each shaft has 2 gears, i/p & o/p shafts r moving)
19. What is the purpose of normalizing- (Refining of grain structure)
20. As the grain size is decreased-(Hardness increases,corrosion resistance decreases,both)
21. Isothermal gas is filled in a vessel at a pressure P and temperature T then considering the compressible forces as the height increases pressure ??(linearly increases linearly decreases exponentially increase )
22. A bottle is filled with water and air and is tied to a string and is rotated in horizontal direction. Then in which direction will air bubble travel?(bottom,neck,uniformly spread)
23. A empty bottle(in vaccum) filled with a gas at temp T and press P when the pressure of bottle reaches P temperature of the gas is _? (T,T/K,TK)
24. Bearing somerfield number _ with load on bearing? (increases,decreases,no change)
25. Critical radius for a sphere is-(2k/h)
26. Critical radius exist for_ (spherical,cylindrical,both,slab)
27. Convectional resistance/internal resistance is called (biot number)
28. Nusselt no. is? (hl/k)
29. EOQ=?
30 Which statement is true regarding critical path method? (i only one critical path exists for a network, more than one with same duration,)
31. Shipment cost,inspection cost,storage cost comes under_ (carrying cost ,holding cost,)
32. Ischronous governers sensitivity is- (zero,infinite)
33. self energized brakes are-(friction moment acts in the direction of application of force,opposite to the direction of force, does not need a force to act ,)
34 The ratio of heat capacities for evaporator and condenser is_ (Zero,infinity)
35. when steam and air mixture with partial pressure 0.06 and 0.07 enters a condenser what is the condenser pressure? (0.06,0.07,0.53,0.03)
36. In pulverized burning of coal heat transfer from boiler to water occurs through_( predominant radiation, convection, conduction, conduction+convection)
37. Rankine cycle efficiency for same parameters increases mostly with_(reheat, regeneration, super heating )
38. Ericson cycle with all reversible processes assume_(carnot cycle,stirling,brayton
39. Air delivery tank at outlet of reciprocating compressor is provided for_ (provide constant pressure, avoid cavitation, )
40. High speed centrifugal pump has _? (vanes faces in forward direction side,backward,radial vanes)
41. Thermal efficiency in decreasing order_? (Otto cycle>dual cycle>diesel cycle)
42. When a 1000 K body comes in contact with atmosphere at 300K a loss of 9000 KJ heat is transferred. The net available energy transferred is_43. When entropy of a system increases_? (unavailable energy increases )
44. Rolling is a process widely used for_?
(I section,tubes)
45. Tool nomenclature_?
46. In francis turbine movement of steam?
47. For low power consumption _? (rake angle should be increased / decreased, nose angle increased/ decreased)
47. Continuous chips occur in_? (High speeds,low speeds,both,none)
48. Primary forces in a reciprocating engine_? (fully balanced, partially balanced, completely unbalanced, none)
49. In proximate analysis pyrogallol is used for analysis of which element_? (nitrogen,oxygen)
50. Sulphur content in fuel greatly affects_? (corrosion)
51. Heat transfer through radiation can be increased by_?
(decreasing emissivity and increases temperature of hot body)
52. which theory of failure clearly explains the failure in case of ductile material? (Maximun shear stress theory or Guests or trescas theory)
53. When a material is subjected to continuous cycles which limit is being verified? (Endurance limit)
54. where is stress concentration maximum? (notches, stress reducing throughcuts)
55. Power transmitted through a belt drive_? P(T2-T1)
56. According to Eulers theory crippling or buckling load is (Wcr = Cπ2EI/l2)
57. During sensible heating, specific humidity_? (remains constant)
58. COP of a refrigerator is _? (greater than 1 )
59. The maximum temperature in a refrigeration cycle is_? (less than/greater than/equal to critical temperature)60. The pressure at the throat of the nozzle_? (maximum,min)
61. for a statically determinate set of forces for equilibrium_? (∑ f(X),f(Y),f(Z)=0,∑M=0)
62. For a statically determinate set of forces- (there r as many equations as the no. of unknowns)63. 1-2-3 analysis is used for_? (1.break even analysis, ??)
64. A problem on mean time of service something like a salesman has a rating of 120. considering 10% allowance time calculate the time required to serve 120???
65. A problem n determining time in a queue??
66. Energy equation for a laminar flow is _? (Uniform and steady ,non uniform and unsteady)67. Undercuts in welding occurs due to_? (low welding current,high welding current)
68. Work holding equipment in shearing??
69. At the centre of a nozzle _? (Mach no<1>=1;=1)

CLAT 2010 SOLVED PAPER

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FEATURED COLLEGES

ABS, Noida

Ashok Inlead School of Hospitality, Gurgaon

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NIILM, New Delhi

FIIB, New Delhi

InBuss, Gurgaon

NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST

Format of the Exam

First I
Duration:	1¼ Hours (09.30 A.M. to 10.45 A.M.)
No of Questions:	100
Question Type:	Paper-I shall be of general nature, intended to assess the teaching/research aptitude of the candidate. It will primarily be designed to test reasoning ability, comprehension, divergent thinking and general awareness of the candidate.

First II
Duration:	1¼ Hours (10.45 A.M. to 12.00 NOON)
No of Questions:	100
Question Type:	Paper-II shall consist of short questions based on the subject selected by the candidate. Each of these papers will consist of a Test Booklet containing 50 objective type questions. The candidate will have to mark the response for each question.

NSD EXAM

Format of the Exam

Preliminary Screening
Question Type:	Audition or practical test of the candidates

Final Round
Question Type:	3 to 5 days workshop on the campus of NSD, New Delhi

NCHMCT JEE

Format of the Exam

Numerical Ability and Scientific Aptitude
Duration:	3 hours for all the sections combined
No of Questions:	30 Questions
Question Type:	Multiple choice, objective type questions with negative marking.

Reasoning and Logical Deduction
Duration:	3 hours for all the sections combined
No of Questions:	30 Questions
Question Type:	Multiple choice, objective type questions with negative marking.

General Knowledge & Current Affairs
Duration:	3 hours for all the sections combined
No of Questions:	30 Questions
Question Type:	Multiple choice, objective type questions with negative marking.

English Language
Duration:	3 hours for all the sections combined
No of Questions:	80 Questions
Question Type:	Multiple choice, objective type questions with negative marking.

Aptitude for Service Sector
Duration:	3 hours for all the sections combined
No of Questions:	30 Questions
Question Type:	Multiple choice, objective type questions with NO negative marking for this section.

IIMC EXAM

Format of the Exam

Written Examination
Question Type:	No specific area can be cited for preparation to the Entrance examination. The examination covers general issues with thrust on the analytical & writing skills of the candidates.

FTII EXAM

Format of the Exam

Written Test
Duration:	3 Hours
Score:	100 Marks
Question Type:	Questions to test the General Knowledge and General Mental Ability of the candidate.